The Apostle Paul is writing about his authority to bring the Corinthians teaching from God's Word & this he did through the Holy Spirit Who makes God's Word real & applicable by writing it in our hearts & not on tablets of stone.
When Paul was first Saul the Pharisee, his teaching came from both the Law of God & the traditions of men (i.e. Rabbinical teaching). He now writes that he no longer teaches that, nor can he, as the new life he has in Christ urges him to proclaim the message of the New Covenant & not the Old. What was the teaching under the Old Covenant? That man (the Jew), had to note every written Command of God ("the letter of the Law"), & had to given mental assent to it & obey it to the letter. If he failed, he suffered terribly. This was because the Law was given to show them how sinful they were, how they couldn't find complete deliverance from sin, & therefore any attempt to obey the Law fully would never work & would only result in their death/judgement.
But, writes Paul, unlike the Letter of the Law, the Spirit of God Who writes God's Laws upon our hearts, enables us to know what is sin & what is not, what pleases God & what doesn't, or how to use discernment over many things that come to us. And so our immediate confession to God when we fail Him & sin, sees the efficacy (continual application) of Christ's Blood for our cleansing & an assured, joyful heart. The Jews never had that experience, because the Law wasn't designed for that - it only brought him death & not life. But Jesus said, "I am come that they might have LIFE, and that they might have it more abundantly." John 10:10.
Hi Barry sorry to correct you once more but Moses father in law was Jethro, and yes he did tell Moses to set up leaders to help him judge the people, and the most serious matters Moses would judge, On a side note this would be similar to what most democratic nations have as a judicial system today. While reading your comment I realized that I had forgotten that Moses was also married to an Ethiopian woman, so thank you for reminding me. GB
Exodus 18:1 "When Jethro, the priest of Midian, Moses' father in law, heard of all that God had done for Moses, and for Israel his people, and that the LORD had brought Israel out of Egypt;" Exodus 18:2 "Then Jethro, Moses' father in law, took Zipporah, Moses' wife, after he had sent her back," Exodus 18:21 "Moreover thou shalt provide out of all the people able men, such as fear God, men of truth, hating covetousness; and place such over them, to be rulers of thousands, and rulers of hundreds, rulers of fifties, and rulers of tens:"
Numbers 12:1 "And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman."
I posted an incorrect reference about Numbers 10:29-33. I just gained some clarity from my confusion. Hobab was Moses' father-in-laws's son.(Moses' brother-in- law) It was Moses' father-in-law,Raguel, in the book of Exodus who had visited him sometime after he lead God's people out of Egypt. Raguel brought Moses' wife & two sons with him & he also gave Moses the idea of delegating the task of judging the disputes amongst the people to others as Moses was tiring himself out being the sole judge of the people. So I am assuming when Raguel declined Moses' request travel to the promise land, he returned home with Moses' wife and two sons. Did Moses ever see them(the wife & sons) again.
In Numbers 10:29-33, did Moses father-in-law, Hobab, to whom departed from Moses returning to his homeland. The word 'they' was used, I have two questions. Was Moses' wife & two sons part of the they mentioned in 10:33 who returned to Midian with his father-in-law? And did Moses ever see his wife & sons again?
All these names are the same person. Some had two names. I have 3 names and many nick names. Simon Peter is the same person. And by the way one of my nick names is Jethro.
People think Bible names have to match 100%. Names in those days were NO different than today. A man named William is also known as Bill or Will. Taylor can be a man's name or a woman's name. The Bible makes NO mistakes. Names that don't match doesn't mean there is an error.
that still doesn't answer Giulo Figlio's question though, it does seem like a typo, but as H.D pointed out, the Bible makes no mistakes. maybe the name got miss-translated? idk, it doesn't matter a whole lot, however.
To Giulo Figlio Depending on the translation for example the—Nelson KJB says, "Raguel" and other KJV translations say, "Reuel". Again, Same name—no typo error.
To Giulo Figlio no typo, the Bible has no errors. Exodus 2:15-18 Now the priest of Midian...And when they came to Reuel their father, Reuel is Moses father-in-law and in Exodus 3:1 he is called "Jethro" the priest of Midian... Numbers 10:29 And Moses said unto Hobab, the son of Reuel,"Jethro" the Medianite, Moses' father-in-law,... No typo's no errors!
10:29, I think Hobab is moses' brother-in-law, son of Reuel, the midianite. Big typo here. I checked the hebrew torah, exodus 2:18, and numbers 10:29, the name for Reuel in hebrew is spelled the same way. So here in 10:29 should say Reuel and not Raguel.
AWESOME OUR HEAVENLY FATHER AND OUR SAVIOUR JESUS CHRIST;ITS GOOD TO KNOW THAT GOD HAS OUR BACK AND WILL PROTECT US FROM OUR ENEMIES.THANK YOU LORD,YOU ARE WORTHY TO BE PRAISE!!!
It is a mystery where the KJV and YLT get the translation Raguel, as they translate the name Reuel in other places (i.e. Exodus 2:18). I highly doubt the KJV and YLT both followed the Vulgate or LXX here.
When Paul was first Saul the Pharisee, his teaching came from both the Law of God & the traditions of men (i.e. Rabbinical teaching). He now writes that he no longer teaches that, nor can he, as the new life he has in Christ urges him to proclaim the message of the New Covenant & not the Old. What was the teaching under the Old Covenant? That man (the Jew), had to note every written Command of God ("the letter of the Law"), & had to given mental assent to it & obey it to the letter. If he failed, he suffered terribly. This was because the Law was given to show them how sinful they were, how they couldn't find complete deliverance from sin, & therefore any attempt to obey the Law fully would never work & would only result in their death/judgement.
But, writes Paul, unlike the Letter of the Law, the Spirit of God Who writes God's Laws upon our hearts, enables us to know what is sin & what is not, what pleases God & what doesn't, or how to use discernment over many things that come to us. And so our immediate confession to God when we fail Him & sin, sees the efficacy (continual application) of Christ's Blood for our cleansing & an assured, joyful heart. The Jews never had that experience, because the Law wasn't designed for that - it only brought him death & not life. But Jesus said, "I am come that they might have LIFE, and that they might have it more abundantly." John 10:10.
Exodus 18:1 "When Jethro, the priest of Midian, Moses' father in law, heard of all that God had done for Moses, and for Israel his people, and that the LORD had brought Israel out of Egypt;" Exodus 18:2 "Then Jethro, Moses' father in law, took Zipporah, Moses' wife, after he had sent her back," Exodus 18:21 "Moreover thou shalt provide out of all the people able men, such as fear God, men of truth, hating covetousness; and place such over them, to be rulers of thousands, and rulers of hundreds, rulers of fifties, and rulers of tens:"
Numbers 12:1 "And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman."
Can someone help me understand 2 Corinthians 3:6....what did Paul meam when he said the letter killeth?