Jude Chapter 1 Discussion Page 2



 
  • Regina on Jude 1 - 1 year ago
    I am a bit confused because Jude (Paul to Jude) begins with addressing the saints but reverts in the middle to recognizing the fallen angels and the comparison to Caine. Is this for saints to question their attachment to the flesh and question the percentage of their belief? For I know we are all filthy rags striving for holiness and greater use of our spiritual language. Are we then judged by others besides Christ (10,000); is this the cloud of witnesses? The new testement is more difficult than the old, I believe to interpret.
  • Giannis - In Reply on Jude 1 - 1 year ago
    Thank you dear Phillip.

    By the way "en pneumati" means "in spirit" and is pronounced "ehn pneh-vma-ti" by Greeks. The first syllable is toned. The letter p is always pronounced, also the vowel u after vowels a,e is always pronounced as "v" in modern Greek.

    God bless you.
  • Philip Christian Parks on Jude 1 - 1 year ago
    Dear Giannis,

    I welcome your attention to, and suggested corrections or improvements of any comment I submit in this forum.

    I have discovered that different Biblical Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries often differ slightly in the spellings and pronunciations of certain words. I have found this especially true when consulting different Hebrew dictionaries.

    The main Biblical dictionary I use is "Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary of the Old and New Testaments" (Thomas Nelson, 1984). I also use two other online Bible dictionary websites. Once in a while the spellings differ between these resources.

    Additionally, for the word "Ghost" in the expression, "praying in the Holy Ghost" (Jude v.20), I provided only only the base root word rendering, not the grammatical and literal spelling of the word as it appears in the Scriptural context.

    In my post, I submitted the root word rendering of "" (transliterated "pneuma"; pronounced "pnyoo'-mah"). But, the actual spelling as recorded in the verse is (transliterated "Pneumati").

    Of interest, the two Greek professors during my seminary years often pronounced certain Greek words differently. Who knows how Jude actually pronounced "" during the first century. I'd almost guarantee he did not pronounce it like we do today.

    When preaching or teaching, one of my favorite statements when reading certain names in the Bible, particularly those recorded in Romans Chapter Sixteen, is: "When I get to Heaven, I'm going to look these people up and apologize to them for the way I butchered the pronunciations of their names!"

    Sincerely, Phil ( 2Tim. 2:15).
  • Giannis - In Reply on Jude 1:7 - 1 year ago
    Dear Philip.

    You wouldn't mind if i make a small linguistic correction, wouldn't you? "Pneuma' is pronounced as "pnh-vmah" by Greeks not pnyoomah. It means spirit, in ancient Greek air and wind as well. Again sorry. God bless you.
  • Philip Christian Parks on Jude 1:7 - 1 year ago
    praying in The HOLY GHOST; Jude v.20 = Both terms, "GHOST" and "SPIRIT", translate from the same Greek noun root (transliterated "pneuma"; pronounced "PNYOO-mah"), and derives the English element "pneumo-" referring to air, respiration, and the lungs.

    GOD personally and intimately interacts with HIS people in the PERSON of The HOLY SPIRIT "Which is given unto us" ( Rom. 5:5), and "Which dwelleth in us" ( 2Tim. 1:14).

    Praying "in The HOLY GHOST" (cp. Eph. 6:18) is just as required as praying to The FATHER in JESUS's NAME ( Jn. 14:6 & 13-14; Heb. 10:19; 1Tim. 2:5). Of note, both LORD JESUS CHRIST and The HOLY SPIRIT are the only AGENTS through which GOD The FATHER hears and attends to the saints' and the church's prayers ( Eph. 2:18):

    "Through HIM (LORD JESUS CHRIST) we both (Paul and the Ephesian Church) have access {the privilege of approaching and gaining an audience} by one SPIRIT unto The FATHER."

    Additionally, The SPIRIT aids our praying even during the most difficult situations ( Rom. 8:26):

    "The SPIRIT also helpeth our infirmities (weakness; feebleness): for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but The SPIRIT itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."

    During these dire situations, The SPIRIT prays on the saint's behalf when the saint does not know what to pray for in a particular situation, nor how to verbally articulate the prayer.

    Moreover, both LORD JESUS CHRIST ( Rom. 8:34; Heb. 7:25) and The HOLY SPIRIT ( Rom. 8:26-27) guarantee GOD The FATHER hears the saints' prayers through THEIR Intercessory Work.

    Often, theologians describe The HOLY GHOST as the Third PERSON of the GODHEAD TRINITY. The reader must not assume this supposed "third" ranking attributes to HIM a lesser degree of status.

    The expression, "The HOLY SPIRIT", identifies the Same DIVINE PERSON within the TRIUNE TRINITY of The GODHEAD which consists of The PERSONS of GOD The FATHER, GOD The SON LORD JESUS CHRIST, and GOD The HOLY GHOST (SPIRIT).
  • Hazel carty on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Jude has speak these powerful words that feed my soul
  • Anthony - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    awesome thanks
  • Anthony - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    ver appreciated! trying to learn things
  • Anthony - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    That was so good! thank you
  • Gigi - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    Thanks, Jesse, well said.
  • Rick - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    Anthony P.S. The Apostle Paul by revelation being shown spiritually had to explain in great length how

    to do things of God correctly because the Corinthian believers were way out of order and combining pagan

    actions and thought to the things of God. It is the first thing done on the day of Pentecost and in Acts 2:11

    Gods Word says they were speaking the wonderful works of God and they were not jumping up and dow

    shouting or hitting the floor they decent and in order. Prayerfully this helps.
  • Rick - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    Hi Anthony You are going to get a few takes on this, one of them praying in the spirit, for the spirit to

    come in which is not possible because we already have it. 2 Be too be praying to God quietly about his word

    mind with understanding. Third which is what I understand scripturally is speaking in tongues which is

    your own private prayer life with God. Now many believe this doesn't exist anymore, or went out with

    apostolic age. Also they've seen examples like I have that are so out of order who would want to do that.

    Correctly understood all things of God are decent and in order, this manifestation of Gods gift is primarily for

    your private prayer life been doing this for 42 years.

    I manifested power from on High shortly after confessing Romans 10: 9+10, now like everything

    else biblically you have to make up your mind to believe or not. There's got to be something to it because the

    Apostle paul said to the church at Corinth that he thanked God he spoke in tongues more than ye all

    and keep in mind he was given how the church was suppose to operate. There are 12 benefits to SI.T. biblically.
  • Jesse - In Reply on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    Anthony,

    Paul touches on this in 1 Corinthians 14:15. He says "What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also:

    He puts himself out there hypothetically as saying "If I did what you did, if I prayed in the spirit, but not with my mind, and I prayed in an unknown tongue, then my understanding is unfruitful. I don't even understand what I'm praying!"

    So he says "I will pray with the Spirit." He didn't say anything about tongues. He says I will pray with the Spirit, and pray with the understanding also. So when I pray, it will be from my spirit where Christ dwells, but I'm also going to pray thoughts. There are things that I want to pray about and I'm literally involved with Jesus Christ. I'm not bypassing my brain to try and reach some type of spiritual euphoria. This is a relationship!

    Paul then says I will sing with the spirit, and with understanding also. You see, to those people in Corinth, it's like "That's unspiritual!" But once you start understanding the songs you sing, and this is what we are guilty of today, is that we have a lot of songs that we just repeat the same phrases over and over again. And it's like hypnotic stuff. People try to reach a spiritual high. And then you sing other songs, and people will say "Well, I don't feel the spirit there," but the song might have some good doctrine to it.

    Once a person is saved, the battle is for the mind. It's no wonder that Satan brings some of the pagan mystic religions into the church to try and reach a spiritual high! As far as singing in the Spirit, Paul says in Ephesians 5:18-20 "Don't be drunk with wine, but be filled with the Spirit, speaking to yourselves in psalms, and hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord."

    One of the things of being filled with the Spirit is singing with melody in your heart. It doesn't necessarily mean with your mouth. Paul says I'm going to sing with my understanding also!

    Hope this helps?
  • Anthony on Jude 1:19 - 2 years ago
    what is praying in the holy ghost?
  • T. Levis - In Reply on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Dgjot, to add, somethings mentioned : in Daniel 10:7-13,21, -continues - Daniel 11:1 , Daniel 12:1, Zechariah 3:1-3, speaks also about rebuke, more on Michael- Revelations 12:7,
  • Michael the Archangel in charge of Moses's body - In Reply on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Wesley's Notes for JUDE 1:9

    1:9 Yet Michael - It does not appear whether St. Jude learned this by any revelation or from ancient tradition. It suffices, that these things were not only true, but acknowledged as such by them to whom he wrote. The archangel - This word occurs but once more in the sacred writings, # 1Thess 4:16|. So that whether there be one archangel only, or more, it is not possible for us to determine. When he disputed with the devil - At what time we know not. Concerning the body of Moses - Possibly the devil would have discovered the place where it was buried, which God for wise reasons had concealed. Durst not bring even against him a railing accusation - Though so far beneath him in every respect. But simply said, (so great was his modesty!) The Lord rebuke thee - I leave thee to the Judge of all.

    People's Bible Notes for Jude 1:9

    Jude 1:9 Michael the archangel. Michael is brought forward as a contrast with those who speak evil of dignities. He is called by Daniel "the Great Prince" (Da 12:1), and here "the archangel", or head angel. He disputed about the body of Moses. The reference is not to a statement of the Bible, but to a Jewish tradition which held that the burial place of Moses was placed under the charge of Michael. Durst not bring against him a railing accusation. Yet in addressing the devil, a fallen angel, he did not rail at him, but only said, "The Lord rebuke thee".
  • Dgjot on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Re: Jude 1:9 Where in the Old Testament does it mention the dispute between Michael the archangel and the devil??? I don't know where to find it.

    Thank You.
  • Paballo on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Hallelujah

    To God be the glory great things has done
  • Chris - In Reply on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    Thanks brother Philip, for those great additions to my understanding. As I read it over, my thoughts went to both our Lord & also to the Apostle Peter who brought out warnings about correct leadership of Christ's Church: Matthew 20:25-28 & 1 Peter 5:2,3. Those, of whom the early Church congregations were warned, certainly disregarded this great example of humility, leadership, & being a pattern to emulate. But aren't those the qualities that any leader, within or without the Church, should embrace & exercise? Thank you again & every blessing in your labours.
  • Philip Christian Parks - In Reply on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    Dear Chris,

    Thank you for reminding me of the Nicolaitans ( Rev. 2:6 & 15). The proper name "Nicolaitans" literally means "conqueror (or destroyer) of the laity (people)." I cannot find any proof that they were disciples of the Nicolas mentioned only in Acts 6:5. I certainly do not desire to defame that particular Nicolas based on conjecture or speculation.

    The implication of the term "Nicolaitan" suggests that a despotic authoritarian, or a hierarchy had assumed unauthorized lordship as priests over the church, thus usurping The Headship of CHRIST ( Eph. 1:22; 5:23; Col. 1:18).

    The church must never underestimate the influential power these charismatic religious heretics have over gullible churches. Note how the Ephesian Church hated "the deeds of the Nicolaitans, which I (our Glorified CHRIST) also hate" ( Rev. 2:1-6). Yet, the Pergamos Church appointed certain Nicolaitans into their church leadership positions and adopted and practiced ("hold") "the doctrine of the Nicolaitans, which thing I hate" ( Rev. 2:12-16).

    I also looked up the word "hold" ( Rev. 2:15) in my Greek dictionary and discovered it translates from the Greek verb root (pronounced "krat-EH-o"), which speaks of church leaders using dictatorial power over the church to enforce their Nicolaitan doctrine. This sets a dangerous precedence, for the powerful often gain power over the church far beyond that prescribed in the New Testament.

    If "Diotrephes, who loveth to have the preeminence among them" (3Jn. v.9), was not a Nicolaitan, he certainly seemed to have patterned his authoritarian intimidation after their doctrine.

    Reading your post has given me some thoughts for adding to my own commentary. Thank you.
  • Chris - In Reply on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    Indeed brother Philip, their ungodliness knew no bounds. Even if their many sins as you listed were sufficient for immediate condemnation, their "turning the Grace of God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ" (verse 4), seems to be the hook on which that list hangs.

    I think of the condemnation by our Lord in Revelation 2:6,14,15 of the Nicolaitans, from whom these "ungodly men" may well have arisen or at least from under their tutorship. As these men (in Jude), so also were the Nicolaitans, who made mockery of the Grace of God revealed in His Gospel. Believing that marriage was not binding on Christians as it was a human invention, this gave rise to all manner of unnatural unrestrained sexual behaviour. And with the Love & Mercy of God to all men being the foundation of the Gospel, they, without fear of punishment for their sins, literally turned & perverted God's Grace into lasciviousness. And with swelling convincing words, many were led astray, fulfilling fleshly desires & becoming ensnared by Satan. Having done despite to God's Grace, the Holy Character of the Lord God & His Son were so marred & distorted, that it could be well said of them, that they 'denied the Lord & His Christ'. And don't these words allude to the Gnostic teaching at that time, which refuted the belief that deity could unite with flesh? These men spoken of in Jude came in many disguises to believers everywhere, even today, tools of Satan, to weaken & destroy the Body of Christ & the yet the sure promise from Matthew 16:18, is that even "the gates of hell shall not prevail against it".

    Thank you for those thoughts brother, on this passage.
  • Philip Christian Parks - In Reply on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    Your spiritual insight and hermeneutical ability to disqualify my commentary as having "no understanding of this tiny book at all" greatly impresses me. I'll take your criticism under advisement, even in light of the fact that you have not read my lengthy commentary in its entirety. Keep in mind, this website limits each submission to only 2000 characters which is hardly enough to make a basic point.

    Readers must first have a general understanding of the term "un-GODly" (Jude v.4) before they can apply it in the context. The general explanation details "why" they are un-GODly. Jude's epistle details "how" they are un-GODly. Jude provided no identities to these un-GODly people, for they exist in every age. Rather, Jude described them as "certain men crept in unawares" (v.4), and "these [filthy] dreamers" (v.8). While these two descriptions may identify different types of people, they all desire to produce the same result within the church: perversion of the Gospel and the Doctrines of CHRIST (e.g. vv. 11-12).

    They are un-GODly far beyond their "secretly engaged in gross sexual immorality without anyone knowing" as you say. Consider their unGODly ways of ...

    + hatred toward all in authority (v.8),

    + mimicking Cain, Balaam, and Korah (v.11),

    + deeds, hard [speeches] and great swelling words(vv. 8 & 15-16),

    + unjustified murmurings and ungrateful complaints (v.16), and

    + mockery of all things holy during "the last time" (v.18).

    Their behavior does not "imply they're going to lose their salvation", but rather they are not saved in the first place, for they "were before of old ordained to this condemnation" (v.4) because "they have not The SPIRIT" (v.19). These are the same type of heretics our LORD described as thieves, robbers, strangers, and hirelings ( Jn. 10).

    Yes, I'm keenly aware of Apostle Peter's account of the same type of un-GODly men as you correctly point out, particularly Second Peter chapter two, and to which I refer many times in my full commentary.
  • Philip Christian Parks on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    un-GODly men; Jude v.4 = The adjective "un-GODly" describes a person who has no reverential respect, nor any honorable consideration for GOD, or anything pertaining to GOD. Thus, they reject any thought or form of worshiping HIM because "they did not like to retain {possessing and putting intelligence and wisdom into practical use} GOD in their knowledge" ( Rom. 1:28).

    As a point of antonymous (the opposite of synonymous) reference, the term un-GODliness describes the polar opposite contrast to GODliness. Un-GODliness is anything and everything in man that contradicts GOD, HIS ESSENCE, HIS PERSON, HIS Character, HIS Attributes, HIS Will, and HIS Purposes. Un-GODliness is the rejection of, and unbelief in, GOD, HIS CHRIST, and HIS Gospel.

    The un-GODly are not atheists by default or through any actual non-belief in GOD's real existence, for they are "men, who hold the Truth in unrighteousness" ( Rom. 1:18). They actually know about GOD, but choose to reject HIM, for "they did not like to retain GOD in their knowledge" ( Rom. 1:28). Moreover, the hatred the un-GODly seethe toward GOD prompts them to "despise the Riches of HIS Goodness and Forbearance" ( Rom. 2:4) because of their "hardness and impenitent heart" ( Rom. 2:5).

    Their hatred, hardness, and rejection of GOD turns them into "The fool [who] hath said in his heart, There is no GOD" ( Ps. 14:1; cp. Ps. 36:1; 53:1). Notice, the expression, "There is ", is in italics for it was added by the translators. What the fool literally says is this: "There is no God for me. I will worship and serve no god or deity." In essence, even though they "know the Judgement of GOD" ( Rom. 1:32), this mental knowledge poses "no fear of GOD before their eyes" ( Rom. 3:18; cp. Eph. 4:19; 1Tim. 4:2).
  • I John 2:17 - In Reply on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    I don't really understand why you're belaboring the definition of "ungodly", as if it's meaning wasn't patently clear from the very basic and fundamental prefix, suffix and root word that comprise the word -- i.e. "un", "God", and "ly".

    And that litany of attributes you unilaterally ascribe to it without explanation doesn't have anything to do with the manner is which that word is clearly utilized within Jude, which is focused exclusively on gross sexual immorality. You invoke a litany of passages from other sections of the Bible, implying direct correlation to the subject of Jude, without remotely establishing that. You basically convey no understanding of this tiny book at all. Did you know that it directly mirrors 2 Peter Chapter 2, which is almost always discussed together it?

    At any rate both passages describe teachers or other people of prominence in the Church, who are secretly engaged in gross sexual immorality without anyone knowing about it (according to "Peter" and "Jude"). They're describing people clearly integrated into the life of the church, but unbeknownst to everyone are sexual deviants, and it's implied they're going to lose their salvation for it. And whoever wrote 2 Peter just bends over backwards throughout the book to say, "I really am the Apostle Peter, and I'm fixing to be martyred and this is my last word to the Church." And then you have someone claiming to be the brother of Christ (Jude) that comes along and says nearly the exact same thing as "Peter".
  • Philip Christian Parks on Jude 1:9 - 2 years ago
    un-GODly men; Jude v.4 = The adjective "un-GODly" describes a person who has no reverential respect, nor any honorable consideration for GOD, or anything pertaining to GOD. Thus, they reject any thought or form of worshiping HIM because "they did not like to retain {possessing and putting intelligence and wisdom into practical use} GOD in their knowledge" ( Rom. 1:28).

    As a point of antonymous (the opposite of synonymous) reference, the term un-GODliness describes the polar opposite contrast to GODliness. Un-GODliness is anything and everything in man that contradicts GOD, HIS ESSENCE, HIS PERSON, HIS Character, HIS Attributes, HIS Will, and HIS Purposes. Un-GODliness is the rejection of, and unbelief in, GOD, HIS CHRIST, and HIS Gospel.

    The un-GODly are not atheists by default or through any actual non-belief in GOD's real existence, for they are "men, who hold the Truth in unrighteousness" ( Rom. 1:18). They actually know about GOD, but choose to reject HIM, for "they did not like to retain GOD in their knowledge" ( Rom. 1:28). Moreover, the hatred the un-GODly seethe toward GOD prompts them to "despise the Riches of HIS Goodness and Forbearance" ( Rom. 2:4) because of their "hardness and impenitent heart" ( Rom. 2:5).

    Their hatred, hardness, and rejection of GOD turns them into "The fool [who] hath said in his heart, There is no GOD" ( Ps. 14:1; cp. Ps. 36:1; 53:1). Notice, the expression, "There is ", is in italics for it was added by the translators. What the fool literally says is this: "There is no God for me. I will worship and serve no god or deity." In essence, even though they "know the Judgement of GOD" ( Rom. 1:32), this mental knowledge poses "no fear of GOD before their eyes" ( Rom. 3:18; cp. Eph. 4:19; 1Tim. 4:2).
  • Jesus on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Amazing words
  • Geneva Shields on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    How to understand more about the Holy Spirit & learn all I can. I am 78 years old and have been a New Testament Christian since I was 18 years old. A member of the Lord's Church, church of Christ, @ Sherwood for most of my married life, which will be 60 years the 31st of July.

    In Christian Love.

    Geneva Shields
  • Aria on Jude 1:12 - 2 years ago
    god is amazing the holy trinity is always with us amen
  • BSP on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    The first few verses provide a warning example. Past examples were given and it was up to each individual Christian of what course he or she would take.
  • Chris - In Reply on Jude 1 - 2 years ago
    Hi Marie. The essence of Jude verse 9 is that Michael, the Archangel, dared not bring a railing accusation against the devil. We know this because of Jude's earlier warnings of wicked men (verse 4) who crept into the Church, teaching wrong doctrine & turning God's Grace into lasciviousness (unrestrained sexual behaviour). And these same 'filthy dreamers' (v 8) despise dominion & speak evil of dignities. And so Jude gives the example of Michael who dared not rail accusations against the Devil, though he had every right to do so, rather said "The Lord rebuke thee".

    So that's all we know from this Book: Jude's warning to the readers of his epistle to be aware of such wickedness entering the Church. Re the occasion of the body of Moses, we know nothing about this event: what was the problem here, what was the accusation or what was reason for even bringing it up? Was it to do with the fact that God (by His angel?) buried Moses rather than being done by man ( Deuteronomy 34:1-8), or maybe Moses wasn't buried at all since his grave is unknown, or some other reason that the Devil brought up? So from this verse, we can't assume that the Devil was wanting Moses' body - we are not told what the contention (argument) was about.

    If we believe what the Scripture says about Moses' body, then he was buried but he was still in spirit form when he appeared, along with Elijah, at Jesus' transfiguration ( Matthew 17:1-4). It could well be that his body was in the grave awaiting the resurrection, just as Abraham was in Luke 16:19-31. And in like manner, those who have now died believing in Christ Jesus, their spirits have been released to return to God, but their remains on the Earth will be reconstructed to rise in the resurrection, being given glorified bodies ( 1 John 3:2).


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