Hebrews 4:8

“For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.”

King James Version (KJV)

Other Translations

For if Iesus had giuen them rest, then would he not afterward haue spoken of another day.
- King James Version (1611) - View 1611 Bible Scan

For if Joshua had given them rest, He would not have spoken of another day after that.
- New American Standard Version (1995)

For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day.
- American Standard Version (1901)

For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have said anything about another day.
- Basic English Bible

For if Jesus had brought them into rest, he would not have spoken afterwards about another day.
- Darby Bible

For if Jesus had given them rest, then he would not afterward have spoken of another day.
- Webster's Bible

For if Joshua had given them the true rest, we should not afterwards hear God speaking of another still future day.
- Weymouth Bible

For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day.
- World English Bible

For if Jhesus hadde youun reste to hem, he schulde neuere speke of othere aftir this dai.
- Wycliffe Bible

for if Joshua had given them rest, He would not concerning another day have spoken after these things;
- Youngs Literal Bible

Bible commentary

Wesley's Notes for Hebrews 4:8


4:8 The rest - All the rest which God had promised.


People's Bible Notes for Hebrews 4:8


Heb 4:8 For if Jesus. "Joshua" in the Revised Version. "Jesus" is the Greek form of the Hebrew word "Joshua". Had given them rest. Joshua led Israel over the Jordan into Canaan, but that did not give them complete rest. Then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. If that had been true, David would not have exhorted them to seek to enter into rest. Five hundred years after they entered Canaan this exhortation is given in Ps 95:7-11.

Discussion for Hebrews 4:8

  • Ambrose Okech for verse 8
    Somebody must surely tell me: who was being refered to here, joshua, or Jesus? Even if Jesus is the Greek translation of the hebrew word Jesus, how then was it used in this context for the translaters to opt to use 'joshua' now? How different is it from all the use of Jesus throughout the new testament? Think of it, even if joshua indeed gave them rest, the israelites would still need this rest reffered to in this chapter. So it refers to jesus, coz, if Jesus gave them rest they would need none. They also need this rest coz they did not get it then...........from the giver of rest!!

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