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Which best represents the problem with the comment?
In his retelling of Moses's killing of the Egyptian in Acts 7:23-29, Luke casts Moses in the image of Jesus, as a rejected deliverer. What's that called when govt does that same thing with their fallen heroes?
The Israelites' rejection of Moses, which Luke reads into Exodus 2:11-15, is placed in parallel to the Jews' rejection of Jesus, which is understood as the crux of Christianity's break from Judaism.
There was a long thread in the last week concerning this. You may search back a few pages and find the thread.
Also, I suggest reading all of Galatians and all of Romans in order to understand Paul's teaching fully. To take just one portion or verse as a proof text does not serve this topic well.
If that's what you're enquiring about, then that was, in part, because Titus was a Gentile (a Greek) & not a Jew. Every Jewish male at eight days of age, was required to be circumcised ( Genesis 17:10-12 ff) as part of the Covenant God made with Israel, separating them as a special people from the surrounding heathen.
When the Apostle Paul & Barnabas went up to Jerusalem to meet with the Jerusalem Council of Apostles & Elders (see Acts 15:2), he took Titus with them as well. But the Council agreed that Titus, a gentile, should not be circumcised; some were believing & requiring (chiefly by the Judaizers: Galatians 2:4), that gentiles must first be circumcised (i.e. become 'Jews') before they could be accepted as (Christian) believers. So with the agreement & blessing of the Council, the apostles & the early Church were unified that neither circumcision nor the workings of the Law ( Galatians 2:16; Galatians 3:2-13) should ever be imposed on gentiles, even as the Law no longer had strength on anyone (Jew or Gentile) when only God's Grace through faith brought salvation & liberty to those now in Christ. This was a major aspect of the early Church as they battled with not only Gentiles being brought into the body of believers, but that all the Laws that served to show the Jews their inability to keep them, were also now cast aside, because of "Christ is (now brought) the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth" ( Romans 10:4).
I would guess that all Jews believe in Jesus, but not all agree on who He claimed to be. For those who do agree with His claims and have received Him as their Messiah, those would be called Messianic Jews.
Paul called himself "chief of sinners" somewhere else.
I think many people feel that way too. But then we roll into Romans 8: "there is now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus...."
It's not What We Did that's impressive: it's what Jesus did that was impressive!
But now, he "counted all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord" ( Philippians 3:8) as a further emphasis that he, who was once a somebody, became a nobody as far as man was concerned, but now a precious witness to the Grace of God, to be mightily used by God. With all this in mind, his abundant use of personal pronouns here & elsewhere, speak of his vibrant testimony to the Churches & to us of what God can do in a life once given over to religion & self-righteousness.
on this passage?