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    Gordon on Matthew 8:28 - 9 years ago
    I would like to know why in Mathews gospel,he mentions two men, and in Mark 5:2 and Luke 8:27, they mention only one man that was possessed. Every commentary I have read so far only speculates why this is. The event that took place is consistent, but the number of men is inconsistent. There has to be a reason for this, with facts to back it up, not someone speculating what could have happened. Could someone tell me where I could find this information or if you know the answer, please tell me and could you tell me where you found your information.
    "Amen!"   Report



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