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  • J
    Jumin on Exodus 20:3 - 9 years ago
    Nearly all translations, including the KJV, say "...no other gods before me. " Does this mean I can have other gods after him? Only one translation says "...but me. " This implies that the original Hebrew may have allowed implicit polytheism at one point in the Bible 's history. Just wondering if anyone could find a chronological comparable timeframe that negates that notion. Thank you.
    "Amen!"   Report



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