She was blessed and highly favored. Only Jesus Christ was without sin. He was and is the perfect Lamb with out spot or blemish. There is none righteous no not one. Our righteousness is as filthy rags that why were washed in his blood when were born again. John 14:301 Peter 1:19Luke 1:26.
Stu, it's looking like your original question was not genuine. After it was broken down and explained with scripture it seems you are still repeating the same falsehood. People have collectively spent much time sharing scriptures to help you and it seems you may have a motive other than your original question. Some may not look favorably on this.
You have given the correct wording of Luke 1:27. That's exactly what it says. My question to you is how do you get "Mary the mother of God was without sin" out of that verse? I don't see how you come up with that. Please help!
No, the Bible does not say that Mary was without sin. Romans 3:23 says that ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. This means that every human being except the Son of God made man (Jesus) never sinned.
I would like to give an alternate answer to your original question, seeing that your question only required a simple yes or no.
You ask "Does the Holy Bible say that Mary the mother of God was without sin?"
The answer is no.
If you have biblical proof to show otherwise, can you please provide it? The verses you provided do not show Mary to be without sin, nor do they support perpetual virginity.
I would like to see scripture that supports what you are saying. I cannot consider these things without scriptural proof. Can you please provide those scriptures?
Based on your initial question, then based on your disagreement with someone who answered your question, I'm not sure you were genuinely seeking an answer. But in case its helpful to any one else viewing the topic I'll share my thoughts.
Some say we're all born into sin- from the original sin. I believe the original sin affects all of us. Jesus was sinless and perfect His whole life. He's the only one like that.
Based on references like Matthew 18:3 I think it's possible that we're born innocent, pure, and sinless, but is inevitable sin will occur. All people sin (Jesus is the only exception). Mary is not an exception, nor any other people from the Bible. This verse Psalm 51:5 suggests Mary had sin. There is no such verse claiming she was any different than anyone else, other than being chosen for giving birth to Jesus.
When I see some Catholics praying to Mary, chanting to her, singing to her, worshipping her, making graven images of her and bowing down to her statue, it seems like an obvious sin of idolatry- violating the 2nd commandment: Deuteronomy 5:7.
Acts 4:12 says there's no one else but Jesus. Not Mary, not a pope, not a pastor, not the government, not family, or friends, or anyone else but Jesus in whom we should put our hope and trust in.
"Why would the Bible call Mary the mother of God " The Virgin Mary" if she was a sinner and besides Jesus is free from sin so God his Father would not have chosen a sinner to give birth to a sinless Jesus."
Instead of taking scripture at face value like Psalm 51:5 it seems you prefer to believe your own assumptions. I suspect that you already know that fornication/adultery is sin, and that not all sin is fornication or adultery. So, its very possible for a sinner to a virgin- that describes most teenagers, of which Mary was one. Do you believe its possible for a sinner to not to a certain sin like fornication/adultery? If so then you would agree that a sinful person can be a virgin like Mary.
Now, for the second part of what you assumed:
"Jesus is free from sin so God his Father would not have chosen a sinner to give birth to a sinless Jesus."
How could you know what God the Father's thought process was? Do you have a scripture that says what you just said that He "would not have" chosen a sinner?
There is no scripture saying that. But there's plenty of scripture supporting the opposite.
Paul - killed Christians and had a "thorn" in his side, but chosen to spread the gospel and write much of the Bible.
Moses - murdered a guy and possibly a speech impediment, but chosen anyway by God.
David - had a guy killed so he could have an affair with his wife- pretty sick sinful stuff, but God used him anyway.
Remember how Jesus paid extra attention to the vile and "worst" sinners, like the prostitute, and tax collector, thief, lepers, etc.
It seems that God actually takes a liking to people who are imperfect sinners.
Have you ever read this verse?
"And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me." 2 Corinthians 12:9 KJV
Why would the Bible call Mary the mother of God " The Virgin Mary" if she was a sinner and besides Jesus is free from sin so God his Father would not have chosen a sinner to give birth to a sinless Jesus.
Luke 1:27
To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.
And Catholics and Orthodox don't make a graven image of the Virgin Mary. And if what you said 'a graven image' then that is untrue.
Exodus 26:
Moreover, thou shalt make the tabernacle with ten curtains of fine twined linen, and blue, and purple, and scarlet: with cherubim's of cunning work shalt thou make them.
There is not a verse in the Bible that calls Mary The Virgin Mary. The Bible does say that she was a virgin. However, being a virgin does not equate to sinlessness or else every woman who is a virgin could be said to be sinless.
Galatians 4:4 says that God the Father sent forth His Son in the fullness of time, born of a woman. God ordained that Mary would be the mother of His Son in His incarnation. She was selected before the world began.
Elizabeth said that Mary is blessed of all women in Mark 1:42. And therefore, she is the most blessed woman of all time. But that does not make her sinless. She said in Luke 1:47 that her spirit rejoices in God my Savior, showing that she knew that she was a sinner and in need of a Savior.
We can honor Mary for what God chose her to be, but she is not more than a woman chosen by God to become pregnant with Jesus and raise Him to manhood. What the Catholic and Orthodox churches teaches about her being sinless, having an assumption to heaven without dying, and being a co-redemptrix with Jesus are all added doctrines to the Scriptures and are to be rejected because the Bible does not teach these things.
I understand that you wish to follow the teachings of your church's authority. But I urge you to take a different approach and have the Scriptures be your final authority and submit to its teachings only for faith, life, and practice. While there is much to be commended in the teachings of the Catholic and Orthodox Churches, there are many doctrines that have been added over the centuries that were not part of the doctrines of the apostles and early church. I recommend that you test all that is taught to you in your church by what the Scriptures teach and hold on to all that aligns rightly and taught with Scripture and reject all that cannot be found in Scriptures.
I have known a number of people in the Catholic Church who have done this and found that there are some teachings that they needed to reject upon examination.
None of us have a problem with you concerning this verse. It states that Mary was a virgin. And that fulfills the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14.
But this verse does not prove in any way that Mary was sinless.
So please don't think that we disagree with you about Mary being a virgin--rather our disagreement is that the verse does not say she was sinless. I am not aware of any verse that attests to the sinlessness of Mary.
But I do believe she was a godly woman who was awaiting the coming of the Messiah. She did not know ahead of time that God would choose her to be the virgin prophesied. But her response shows that she was a woman of faith and humility and also a willingness to bow to the will of God in her life.
You are picking and choosing what you believe and not what is written in the Holy Bible. It states that Mary was a Virgin, which is why she was called Blessed; every knee will bend. You have an opinion and that is not the truth.
I agree that the Bible says that Mary was a virgin. In being a virgin and becoming pregnant by the Holy
Spirit, Jesus was then born of a virgin, as God prophesied through Isaiah (Is. 7:14)
STU, I stand by what I wrote to you. The Bible never says that Mary was without sin. It says that only Jesus is without sin. He alone is perfectly holy. All men have sinned and fall short of the glory of God ( Romans 3:23).
So, Mary was saved by the sacrifice of Jesus like every Christian. But, because of God's sovereign selection of her to be the mother of Jesus, she indeed, is blessed of all women.
Even so, the Bible says that every knee will bend and tongue confess that Jesus is Lord to the glory of God (Phil.2:10)
But the Bible nowhere says that every knee will bow to Mary.
So, STU, I challenge you to read the four gospels and the epistles to see
-whether it says that Mary was sinless or not,
-whether it says that we should bend our knee to her or not,
-whether we are asked to pray to her or not, whether she is called our mediatrix (having the power to be our mediator between God and man) or if Jesus is the one Mediator between God and man ( 1Tim. 2:5),
-whether she is man's co-redemptrix with Jesus or if Jesus is the only acceptable sacrifice for our sins ( Heb 7:27; 9:14)
-whether she was translated to heaven without dying
After you have read all of the New Testament to find the answers to these points, then you can get back to us and give us Scripture citations that support any of the Catholic beliefs about Mary.
Stu, she shared shared scripture with you and your response was that it was just her opinion and not in the Bible? She literally shared Bible scripture, but you didn't share any scripture in your response. So you did exactly what you accused her of doing.
Also, you used the phrase:
"Mary was a Virgin, which is why she was called Blessed; every knee will bend."
Are you trying to quote scripture? If so, please cite the exact reference so we can be precise.
The Bible I read says that every knee will bow to the Lord Jesus, not Mary! Your words are not in the Bible- they are phrases I'd expect to hear at a Catholic mass, but they are not in the Bible. If you have scripture backing up what you are claiming then please cite it. If not, please learn from us taking the time to share the truth. God's words in the Bible are truth, not man's words.
STU I hear ya...Thats y Jesus was born for us sinners....He is our savior....Jesus is exactly what we sinners need...That New Heart and New spirit...A new innerman...The H.G....Thats y he said if i be lifted up i will draw all men unto me...And that great Promise was that Christ wd be multiplied as the stars of heaven...Thats y the sower of that good seed wants to sow his precious seed in our hearts..That we might birth a baby Christ the H.G..That Child of Promise...That we might be bornagain of his incorruptible seed which is that living word....Making humanity incorruptible..Resulting in an Israel of God which are spirits that are gonna be born in us sinners via his seed....Thats y he has to know us...Thats y they refer to Jesus as the bridegroom he wants to sow his seed in our hearts...Thus there is a baby christ in our future...Which is the H.G. That Child of Promise....And in Rev 12 :10 the Kingdom comes after the woman births the manchild which is the H.G the Kingdom...The Kingdom of God is not in meat or drink but in joy and peace in the H.G. Romans 14:17...Thats y Jesus was saying unless you receive the Kingdom of God as a lil Child you will in no wise enter there in...The reason we refer to the H.G. as the Promise is B/C the H.G. is the multiplication of JESUS IN US SINNERS VIA HIS PRECIOUS SEED the word....That was the great Promise that Christ wd be multiplied as the stars of heaven in us sinners via his seed ....God so loved the world implying humanity...And God was so passionate about this Promise of multiplication that he swore by his very self....in Hebrews 6:13...Thats y Jesus was saying to whom the word came it made them Gods...And the scripture cannot be broken...Thus we will be married to God making us 1 with God.... Isaiah 62:5...As a young man marries a virgin so shall thy God rejoice over you...ok Gbu
The Bible does not teach that Mary was sinless. In fact, if you look at Luke 1:47, what Mary says in the content in Verse 47. My spirit celebrates in whom? God my Savior. She has an awareness already that she needs a Savior. That means that she has an awareness that she's a sinner and she needs a Savior just like everyone else does.
We have to keep that in mind about Mary. We don't want to put her down, but we want her put her in her place and realize that she is blessed among women, but she is still a sinner like you and I and needs a Savior.
We believe that Mary is the mother of Jesus and was born without sin like Jesus who was born without sin. She is called the Virgin Mary. The term Virgin means someone who has not had sexual intercourse.
Hi Stu. I see that many here have responded to you out of concern for you. I also realize that the teachings of the Roman Catholic Church can be very strong & indeed become a part of one's whole belief system & directing of life's affairs. What these folk here have shared is Truth, as given from the Bible, God's Word to us, and not according to Church teaching & dogma. The fact that the Papacy have permitted Catholics to read the Bible for themselves, when once upon a time it was forbidden, is a wonderful permission where Catholics (even those among my acquaintances) are now reading & asking questions; you may be one also wanting to seek Truth. The Church, from history, whether Catholic, Protestant, or whatever, has never been the sole repository of Truth - only the Bible contains it & we need to put aside if possible, what we've been taught & listen to what God's Word has to say.
Enough has been written to you on Mary's spiritual condition: that she was a normal human being, coming to Earth the normal way, & attaining the same sinful condition that we all have sadly received. You have mentioned the name, the Virgin Mary, & equating that title to her 'sinlessness', & why should she be so referred to as Virgin Mary, if she wasn't pure? Apart from what others have shared, I also understand this title given (even as far back as Isaiah 7:14), refers to the fact that Mary, Joseph, those acquainted with her family & those who would come to trust in Jesus as the Messiah, would know that it was God alone Who did this miraculous work of impregnating Mary with His Holy Seed. There were many virgin women in Israel at that time, & all had to have sexual relations with their husbands to conceive. But Mary was an exception: her Seed came directly from God, untainted with a sin nature, & she would be used as the means to fulfil prophecy & bring a Man, fully Divine, into the World. Hence, I see that the title, Virgin Mary, applying to this fact: that this was a miracle from God.
Certain translations of the Bible were prohibited by the Catholic Church because they were considered heretical or contained anti-Catholic commentaries1. However, reading the Bible was never prohibited by the Church1. In fact, it was encouraged by many Church leaders throughout history.
You can actually go online to the Vatican archives, and they will tell you that the bible was once banned (By the Roman Church). Pope Pius IV had a list of forbidden books, and he prohibited them. The bible was on the list. Here is what he had to say:
"Whoever reads or has such a translation in his possession cannot be absolved from his sins until he has turned in these BiblesBooks in the vernacular dealing with the controversies between Catholics and the heretics of our time are not to be generally permitted but are to be handled in the same way as Bible translations."
For 600 years, the Roman Catholic Church attempted to keep translations of the Bible out of the hands of the people. Bible-believing people were mercilessly persecuted, and their Scriptures were destroyed. Those who possessed Bibles without a license were commanded to deliver them up to the Catholic authorities under threat of inquisition terrors. In most cases, even after turning their bibles in, they would still be labeled as heretics and burned at the stake. Their crime was that they were in possession of a bible. Bible translators and distributors were imprisoned and burned. Even after the Catholic inquisition was outlawed in many lands in the 18th and 19th centuries, the popes continued to condemn the free distribution of Scripture."
Thanks brother Jesse for sharing that information. Just to add to that, and I quote an excerpt by Monseigneur Daniel Kutys that was published in the Website, United States Conference of Catholic Bishops: "Until the twentieth Century, it was only Protestants who actively embraced Scripture study. That changed after 1943 when Pope Pius XII issued the encyclical Divino Afflante Spiritu. This not only allowed Catholics to study Scripture, it encouraged them to do so. And with Catholics studying Scripture and teaching other Catholics about what they were studying, familiarity with Scripture grew."
I can't speak generally for Catholics, except from those in my circle of acquaintances, there has been a greater interest & hunger to learn more of the Scriptures, not just in the casual reading of them, but seeking to understand its meaning & application. I know that from the pulpit, some good messages are given, but when it comes down to scriptural analysis & in-depth study, the laity seems to be deprived & such study remains only in the realm of the clergy. So, I often get the exclamation, 'is that really in the Bible or does the Bible really say that?' I see this as a good 'hunger', as resting in & seeking only from the Word of God & not from man, can we ever gain deep insights & Truth that can bring us light & liberty. When the traditions & teachings of the Bible are adhered to & not those of the Church, our hearts are exposed to wonderful messages directly from the Spirit of God to our hungry hearts.
History tells a different story. There was a long period in church history where the Roman Church forbad the reading of the Bible. Not only was it forbidden to read, but the Roman Church also would not allow anyone to be in possession of a bible. If you do a study on church history, particularly the Dark Ages (A.D. 500-1500), you will find out that the Roman Church burned bibles, and also burned at the stake those who were in possession of a bible. No one was allowed to question the teachings of the Papacy, and it made perfect sense as to why they would not allow the reading of the bible. If one was allowed to read for themselves, the fear was that they would discover the gross errors of the church.
The Roman Church, at the Council of Toulouse (1229 AD) had this to say:
"We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books." (Canon 14). A few years later (1234), at the Council of Tarragona, had this to say:
"No one may possess the books of the Old and New Testaments, and if anyone possesses them, he must turn them over to the local bishop within eight days, so that they may be burned."
During the Inquisition, which was established by Pope Gregory IX in 1233, there was an "Index of Forbidden Books" which Roman Catholics were forbidden to read or possess. The bible was on that list. Bibles were being burned. Only certain high-ranking clergy were allowed to be in possession of a bible, and according to them, only they had the authority to interpret what the bible taught.
During the Dark Ages, even priests were unable to read the Scriptures for themselves. As a result, they were unable to compare the false doctrines sweeping through the Roman church against the doctrines of the Word of God. In Italy (Predominantly RC), it was still illegal to own a Bible until 1870!
Do you think that being a virgin means that you are sinless ? Do you think that sexual intercourse in a sin ? If so , can you please explain why you think these things , thankyou .
When you say "We believe," who are you referring to as we? I also believe that Mary was the mother of Jesus, but I also know that Jesus was already in existence before Mary was even born.
Thank you for explaining what the term virgin means. That is my understanding also. Mary was a virgin when Jesus was conceived, but after His birth, she did not remain a virgin.
There are some who believe that she remained a virgin her entire life and that she was consumed up to heaven the same as Jesus was, but there is no biblical support for that.
"To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary."
You have given the correct wording of Luke 1:27. That's exactly what it says. My question to you is how do you get "Mary the mother of God was without sin" out of that verse? I don't see how you come up with that. Please help!
No, the Bible does not say that Mary was without sin. Romans 3:23 says that ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. This means that every human being except the Son of God made man (Jesus) never sinned.
I would like to give an alternate answer to your original question, seeing that your question only required a simple yes or no.
You ask "Does the Holy Bible say that Mary the mother of God was without sin?"
The answer is no.
If you have biblical proof to show otherwise, can you please provide it? The verses you provided do not show Mary to be without sin, nor do they support perpetual virginity.
I would like to see scripture that supports what you are saying. I cannot consider these things without scriptural proof. Can you please provide those scriptures?
Thank you ahead of time for sharing!
Based on your initial question, then based on your disagreement with someone who answered your question, I'm not sure you were genuinely seeking an answer. But in case its helpful to any one else viewing the topic I'll share my thoughts.
Some say we're all born into sin- from the original sin. I believe the original sin affects all of us. Jesus was sinless and perfect His whole life. He's the only one like that.
Based on references like Matthew 18:3 I think it's possible that we're born innocent, pure, and sinless, but is inevitable sin will occur. All people sin (Jesus is the only exception). Mary is not an exception, nor any other people from the Bible. This verse Psalm 51:5 suggests Mary had sin. There is no such verse claiming she was any different than anyone else, other than being chosen for giving birth to Jesus.
When I see some Catholics praying to Mary, chanting to her, singing to her, worshipping her, making graven images of her and bowing down to her statue, it seems like an obvious sin of idolatry- violating the 2nd commandment: Deuteronomy 5:7.
Acts 4:12 says there's no one else but Jesus. Not Mary, not a pope, not a pastor, not the government, not family, or friends, or anyone else but Jesus in whom we should put our hope and trust in.
God bless.
You wrote:
"Why would the Bible call Mary the mother of God " The Virgin Mary" if she was a sinner and besides Jesus is free from sin so God his Father would not have chosen a sinner to give birth to a sinless Jesus."
Instead of taking scripture at face value like Psalm 51:5 it seems you prefer to believe your own assumptions. I suspect that you already know that fornication/adultery is sin, and that not all sin is fornication or adultery. So, its very possible for a sinner to a virgin- that describes most teenagers, of which Mary was one. Do you believe its possible for a sinner to not to a certain sin like fornication/adultery? If so then you would agree that a sinful person can be a virgin like Mary.
Now, for the second part of what you assumed:
"Jesus is free from sin so God his Father would not have chosen a sinner to give birth to a sinless Jesus."
How could you know what God the Father's thought process was? Do you have a scripture that says what you just said that He "would not have" chosen a sinner?
There is no scripture saying that. But there's plenty of scripture supporting the opposite.
Paul - killed Christians and had a "thorn" in his side, but chosen to spread the gospel and write much of the Bible.
Moses - murdered a guy and possibly a speech impediment, but chosen anyway by God.
David - had a guy killed so he could have an affair with his wife- pretty sick sinful stuff, but God used him anyway.
Remember how Jesus paid extra attention to the vile and "worst" sinners, like the prostitute, and tax collector, thief, lepers, etc.
It seems that God actually takes a liking to people who are imperfect sinners.
Have you ever read this verse?
"And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me." 2 Corinthians 12:9 KJV
Luke 1:27
To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.
And Catholics and Orthodox don't make a graven image of the Virgin Mary. And if what you said 'a graven image' then that is untrue.
Exodus 26:
Moreover, thou shalt make the tabernacle with ten curtains of fine twined linen, and blue, and purple, and scarlet: with cherubim's of cunning work shalt thou make them.
There is not a verse in the Bible that calls Mary The Virgin Mary. The Bible does say that she was a virgin. However, being a virgin does not equate to sinlessness or else every woman who is a virgin could be said to be sinless.
Galatians 4:4 says that God the Father sent forth His Son in the fullness of time, born of a woman. God ordained that Mary would be the mother of His Son in His incarnation. She was selected before the world began.
Elizabeth said that Mary is blessed of all women in Mark 1:42. And therefore, she is the most blessed woman of all time. But that does not make her sinless. She said in Luke 1:47 that her spirit rejoices in God my Savior, showing that she knew that she was a sinner and in need of a Savior.
We can honor Mary for what God chose her to be, but she is not more than a woman chosen by God to become pregnant with Jesus and raise Him to manhood. What the Catholic and Orthodox churches teaches about her being sinless, having an assumption to heaven without dying, and being a co-redemptrix with Jesus are all added doctrines to the Scriptures and are to be rejected because the Bible does not teach these things.
I understand that you wish to follow the teachings of your church's authority. But I urge you to take a different approach and have the Scriptures be your final authority and submit to its teachings only for faith, life, and practice. While there is much to be commended in the teachings of the Catholic and Orthodox Churches, there are many doctrines that have been added over the centuries that were not part of the doctrines of the apostles and early church. I recommend that you test all that is taught to you in your church by what the Scriptures teach and hold on to all that aligns rightly and taught with Scripture and reject all that cannot be found in Scriptures.
I have known a number of people in the Catholic Church who have done this and found that there are some teachings that they needed to reject upon examination.
It is written in Luke 1:27 in the Holy Bible in KJV on this site.
"To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary."
None of us have a problem with you concerning this verse. It states that Mary was a virgin. And that fulfills the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14.
But this verse does not prove in any way that Mary was sinless.
So please don't think that we disagree with you about Mary being a virgin--rather our disagreement is that the verse does not say she was sinless. I am not aware of any verse that attests to the sinlessness of Mary.
But I do believe she was a godly woman who was awaiting the coming of the Messiah. She did not know ahead of time that God would choose her to be the virgin prophesied. But her response shows that she was a woman of faith and humility and also a willingness to bow to the will of God in her life.
I agree that the Bible says that Mary was a virgin. In being a virgin and becoming pregnant by the Holy
Spirit, Jesus was then born of a virgin, as God prophesied through Isaiah (Is. 7:14)
STU, I stand by what I wrote to you. The Bible never says that Mary was without sin. It says that only Jesus is without sin. He alone is perfectly holy. All men have sinned and fall short of the glory of God ( Romans 3:23).
So, Mary was saved by the sacrifice of Jesus like every Christian. But, because of God's sovereign selection of her to be the mother of Jesus, she indeed, is blessed of all women.
Even so, the Bible says that every knee will bend and tongue confess that Jesus is Lord to the glory of God (Phil.2:10)
But the Bible nowhere says that every knee will bow to Mary.
So, STU, I challenge you to read the four gospels and the epistles to see
-whether it says that Mary was sinless or not,
-whether it says that we should bend our knee to her or not,
-whether we are asked to pray to her or not, whether she is called our mediatrix (having the power to be our mediator between God and man) or if Jesus is the one Mediator between God and man ( 1Tim. 2:5),
-whether she is man's co-redemptrix with Jesus or if Jesus is the only acceptable sacrifice for our sins ( Heb 7:27; 9:14)
-whether she was translated to heaven without dying
After you have read all of the New Testament to find the answers to these points, then you can get back to us and give us Scripture citations that support any of the Catholic beliefs about Mary.
Also, you used the phrase:
"Mary was a Virgin, which is why she was called Blessed; every knee will bend."
Are you trying to quote scripture? If so, please cite the exact reference so we can be precise.
The Bible I read says that every knee will bow to the Lord Jesus, not Mary! Your words are not in the Bible- they are phrases I'd expect to hear at a Catholic mass, but they are not in the Bible. If you have scripture backing up what you are claiming then please cite it. If not, please learn from us taking the time to share the truth. God's words in the Bible are truth, not man's words.
Romans 14:11
Philippians 2:9-11
The Bible does not teach that Mary was sinless. In fact, if you look at Luke 1:47, what Mary says in the content in Verse 47. My spirit celebrates in whom? God my Savior. She has an awareness already that she needs a Savior. That means that she has an awareness that she's a sinner and she needs a Savior just like everyone else does.
We have to keep that in mind about Mary. We don't want to put her down, but we want her put her in her place and realize that she is blessed among women, but she is still a sinner like you and I and needs a Savior.
Enough has been written to you on Mary's spiritual condition: that she was a normal human being, coming to Earth the normal way, & attaining the same sinful condition that we all have sadly received. You have mentioned the name, the Virgin Mary, & equating that title to her 'sinlessness', & why should she be so referred to as Virgin Mary, if she wasn't pure? Apart from what others have shared, I also understand this title given (even as far back as Isaiah 7:14), refers to the fact that Mary, Joseph, those acquainted with her family & those who would come to trust in Jesus as the Messiah, would know that it was God alone Who did this miraculous work of impregnating Mary with His Holy Seed. There were many virgin women in Israel at that time, & all had to have sexual relations with their husbands to conceive. But Mary was an exception: her Seed came directly from God, untainted with a sin nature, & she would be used as the means to fulfil prophecy & bring a Man, fully Divine, into the World. Hence, I see that the title, Virgin Mary, applying to this fact: that this was a miracle from God.
Certain translations of the Bible were prohibited by the Catholic Church because they were considered heretical or contained anti-Catholic commentaries1. However, reading the Bible was never prohibited by the Church1. In fact, it was encouraged by many Church leaders throughout history.
STU,
You can actually go online to the Vatican archives, and they will tell you that the bible was once banned (By the Roman Church). Pope Pius IV had a list of forbidden books, and he prohibited them. The bible was on the list. Here is what he had to say:
"Whoever reads or has such a translation in his possession cannot be absolved from his sins until he has turned in these BiblesBooks in the vernacular dealing with the controversies between Catholics and the heretics of our time are not to be generally permitted but are to be handled in the same way as Bible translations."
For 600 years, the Roman Catholic Church attempted to keep translations of the Bible out of the hands of the people. Bible-believing people were mercilessly persecuted, and their Scriptures were destroyed. Those who possessed Bibles without a license were commanded to deliver them up to the Catholic authorities under threat of inquisition terrors. In most cases, even after turning their bibles in, they would still be labeled as heretics and burned at the stake. Their crime was that they were in possession of a bible. Bible translators and distributors were imprisoned and burned. Even after the Catholic inquisition was outlawed in many lands in the 18th and 19th centuries, the popes continued to condemn the free distribution of Scripture."
I can't speak generally for Catholics, except from those in my circle of acquaintances, there has been a greater interest & hunger to learn more of the Scriptures, not just in the casual reading of them, but seeking to understand its meaning & application. I know that from the pulpit, some good messages are given, but when it comes down to scriptural analysis & in-depth study, the laity seems to be deprived & such study remains only in the realm of the clergy. So, I often get the exclamation, 'is that really in the Bible or does the Bible really say that?' I see this as a good 'hunger', as resting in & seeking only from the Word of God & not from man, can we ever gain deep insights & Truth that can bring us light & liberty. When the traditions & teachings of the Bible are adhered to & not those of the Church, our hearts are exposed to wonderful messages directly from the Spirit of God to our hungry hearts.
STU,
History tells a different story. There was a long period in church history where the Roman Church forbad the reading of the Bible. Not only was it forbidden to read, but the Roman Church also would not allow anyone to be in possession of a bible. If you do a study on church history, particularly the Dark Ages (A.D. 500-1500), you will find out that the Roman Church burned bibles, and also burned at the stake those who were in possession of a bible. No one was allowed to question the teachings of the Papacy, and it made perfect sense as to why they would not allow the reading of the bible. If one was allowed to read for themselves, the fear was that they would discover the gross errors of the church.
The Roman Church, at the Council of Toulouse (1229 AD) had this to say:
"We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books." (Canon 14). A few years later (1234), at the Council of Tarragona, had this to say:
"No one may possess the books of the Old and New Testaments, and if anyone possesses them, he must turn them over to the local bishop within eight days, so that they may be burned."
During the Inquisition, which was established by Pope Gregory IX in 1233, there was an "Index of Forbidden Books" which Roman Catholics were forbidden to read or possess. The bible was on that list. Bibles were being burned. Only certain high-ranking clergy were allowed to be in possession of a bible, and according to them, only they had the authority to interpret what the bible taught.
During the Dark Ages, even priests were unable to read the Scriptures for themselves. As a result, they were unable to compare the false doctrines sweeping through the Roman church against the doctrines of the Word of God. In Italy (Predominantly RC), it was still illegal to own a Bible until 1870!
When you say "We believe," who are you referring to as we? I also believe that Mary was the mother of Jesus, but I also know that Jesus was already in existence before Mary was even born.
Thank you for explaining what the term virgin means. That is my understanding also. Mary was a virgin when Jesus was conceived, but after His birth, she did not remain a virgin.
There are some who believe that she remained a virgin her entire life and that she was consumed up to heaven the same as Jesus was, but there is no biblical support for that.
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