Bible Discussion Thread

As with all of the scripture, this verse needs to be interpreted within the context of what the writer is addressing. My understanding of this letter is that it is addressing Hebrew believers who, enduring great persecution, were returning back to the practices of Judaism. This is one of the reasons why the writer is spending so much time expounding the surp***ing excellency of Christ and the New Covenant in comparison with Moses and the Old. My understanding of this particular p***age is that the writer is not merely addressing a falling into sin or even the willful choice to sin (is not all sin, a choice of the will?). Instead, I believe the writer is addressing the forsaking of the faith in Christ and returning to the Jewish faith. If we look at it that way, it would be easy to understand that 'there remaineth no more sacrifice for sin because the only effectual sacrifice is that of Christ on the cross which the apostate has abandoned and to return to the old order is to go back to a mode of sacrifice which has been rendered ineffective in that the sacrifices of the old order have been replaced by the sacrifice of the Lamb of God. In short, to turn away from the New Covenant is to reject the only effective means of the cleansing of sin and be left with no means for cleansing whatsoever.