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  • A
    Alister Said - 1 year ago
    Why do we think in KJV 1611 Christ is called Iesus?

    Why was it changed?

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  • C
    Crowly - In Reply - 1 year ago
    Because there are no J's in the Hebrew alphabet. check Lord Iehouah. its spelled the same way
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  • A
    Alister Said - In Reply - 1 year ago
    Thank you Crowly.

    Yet there are no vowels in the Hebrew alphabet either?

    Lucifer is Latin for morning star is it not?

    And is Latin not considered the language of the 'dead'?

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  • C
    Crowly - In Reply - 1 year ago
    True on all accounts
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  • A
    Adam - In Reply - 1 year ago
    Hello, the short answer is that the English language has changed. You will see similar language inscribed on old government buildings.

    Link
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  • A
    Alister Said - In Reply - 1 year ago
    Thank you Adam, as ancient masonry stands as truth to a past also age old coins date stamped as 'J586' for example, tell tales, a whispered truth from the fabrics of (his-story), would you agree?

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  • G
    Giannis - In Reply - 1 year ago
    Hi Alister.

    Iesus is Latin for Jesus.
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