Bible Discussion Thread

  • Irene on Matthew 5:32
    How about first defining the words "fornication" and adultery. In the old testament fornication is defined by *** before marriage, adultery is when a married person (note: a married person) has *** outside of their marriage.

    So clearly Jesus can't be saying: if a man devorces his wife because she had *** outside of the marriage he is making her have *** outside the marriage. It was to be that if the man finds out his wife was not a virgin then he could devorce her. If not so than why would he be using two different words (fornication and adultery) to explain the reasons for devorce? I believe God wants to heal every marriage, even though adultery has occurred. Hit me back on what you think :-)


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