Hello, I am curious to understand why in chapter one Genesis, the word LORD, is not mentioned, but in chapter two, the construct, LORD GOD is used....? Thx...
Thankyou Chris for your reply, interesting perspective or objective fact... As a Christian scholar or priest, your knowledge is inspiring, have a good weekend....
Hello Gitai. That's a good question, as these differences in the use of God (as a Name), can be found right through the Scriptures.
In the references you gave, we can understand & know the meaning of the various names given. In Genesis chapter 1, the author refers to God as 'God' (or, Elohim). Elohim, is a general name for the True God, as it can also be used to depict other gods (e.g. Genesis 31:30; Exodus 12:12), of angels ( Psalm 8:5), of men ( Psalm 82:6), of judges/rulers ( Exodus 21:6)). So, in relation to God's creative Work, the Name Elohim was given here. And of course, Elohim is also used of the True God elsewhere in the Bible, where creating is not signified (e.g. Genesis 35:7).
But in Genesis chapter 2 we see the use of the word, LORD (or, Yahweh), & this signifies a special revelation & a special relationship to Israel: 'Yahweh' means the active, self-existent One (as in Exodus 3:14, where the word is connected to the verb, 'to be') & also being Israel's Redeemer ( Exodus 6:6). So the use of the word, LORD, signifies this True God (Elohim) is not distant (as seen by His other Works), but is now revealed in a most personal way to Israel as LORD (Yahweh); hence combining the two words to read, LORD God. And from Genesis 2:2 onwards, this Name is used to signify the commencement of a personal interaction with His creation.
And when we read the word, 'Lord', this means 'master, lord, sovereign' (as in Genesis 15:2). Hence we can have a variety of combinations: God, LORD God, Lord God, each one depicting what the author has received from God that has to be revealed to the reader (chiefly, Israel in the OT references). And of interest, this God Who is a personal God, is also experienced in many ways in that relationship. Hence, we get compound Names of Yahweh, such Yahweh-Jireh (the God Who will see to it; or provides); Yahweh-Shalom (the God Who gives peace); & many other compound Names.
My bad, too. As I read farther, I saw the name LORD God used repeatedly in Genesis 2. My questions are: does this name in Genesis actually equate to the name YHWH? Or was LORD God or Lord God indicative of another meaning or Hebrew name? And if the pre-flood people knew God as YHWH (I AM THA I AM), did Noah not carry this name over to the post flood era? If Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob knew God as YHWH, when did the Israelites cease to know Him by this name among others mentioned? If the Israelites never knew that God's name was YHWH, why did God think that the Israelites would listen to Moses and trust God if Moses gave them this name for God?
Thanks GiGi. I could only learn this from referring to the Hebrew text (& translation), where in Genesis 2:4 the Hebrew clearly shows "in the day that the LORD (YHWH) God (Elohim) made the earth and the heavens". And not being a Hebrew reader, I can only read it as given, that it is 'God Who is YHWH', Who has done all these things & now communing with man & woman.
Given that the Genesis writer is generally accepted as being Moses (written between 1450 & 1410 BC), where he would have been given special grace to relate these events that he personally had not experienced, it could be that God was already showing him that 'special' connection to His people Israel, yet future, was already set in Adam & Eve.
Yet, would all those living pre-Moses (i.e. pre- Exodus 3:13,14), even know that 'special' Name? Exodus 6:3, says that the 'Name YHWH was not known to the patriarchs'. And yet we know that they were aware of it, like Abraham ( Genesis 15:7; Genesis 22:14), Jacob ( Genesis 27:20) & others knew that Name. But did they only know OF that Name but did not know Him fully, the full depth of understanding of the Name, YHWH? This debate probably still goes on. But when the children of Israel were in slavery in Egypt for over 400 years, that Name which should have been remembered & faithfully passed on, was forgotten, hence their need for an urgent reminder by Moses.
And "why should the Israelites listen to Moses & trust God?" There were four tokens of identification of this 'forgotten' God: the one of His Name ( Exodus 3:14, I AM: I've read that it is the inner meaning of YHWH - I Am the One Who Is); the one of the rod/serpent ( Exodus 4:1-5); the one of the leprous hand ( Exodus 4:6-8); & the one of the river of blood ( Exodus 4:9). I guess that any one or all of these signs should have confirmed Moses' call without any dispute & revealed to the Israelites unequivocally Who the One was Who had heard their cries & come to save them.
In the references you gave, we can understand & know the meaning of the various names given. In Genesis chapter 1, the author refers to God as 'God' (or, Elohim). Elohim, is a general name for the True God, as it can also be used to depict other gods (e.g. Genesis 31:30; Exodus 12:12), of angels ( Psalm 8:5), of men ( Psalm 82:6), of judges/rulers ( Exodus 21:6)). So, in relation to God's creative Work, the Name Elohim was given here. And of course, Elohim is also used of the True God elsewhere in the Bible, where creating is not signified (e.g. Genesis 35:7).
But in Genesis chapter 2 we see the use of the word, LORD (or, Yahweh), & this signifies a special revelation & a special relationship to Israel: 'Yahweh' means the active, self-existent One (as in Exodus 3:14, where the word is connected to the verb, 'to be') & also being Israel's Redeemer ( Exodus 6:6). So the use of the word, LORD, signifies this True God (Elohim) is not distant (as seen by His other Works), but is now revealed in a most personal way to Israel as LORD (Yahweh); hence combining the two words to read, LORD God. And from Genesis 2:2 onwards, this Name is used to signify the commencement of a personal interaction with His creation.
And when we read the word, 'Lord', this means 'master, lord, sovereign' (as in Genesis 15:2). Hence we can have a variety of combinations: God, LORD God, Lord God, each one depicting what the author has received from God that has to be revealed to the reader (chiefly, Israel in the OT references). And of interest, this God Who is a personal God, is also experienced in many ways in that relationship. Hence, we get compound Names of Yahweh, such Yahweh-Jireh (the God Who will see to it; or provides); Yahweh-Shalom (the God Who gives peace); & many other compound Names.
My bad, too. As I read farther, I saw the name LORD God used repeatedly in Genesis 2. My questions are: does this name in Genesis actually equate to the name YHWH? Or was LORD God or Lord God indicative of another meaning or Hebrew name? And if the pre-flood people knew God as YHWH (I AM THA I AM), did Noah not carry this name over to the post flood era? If Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob knew God as YHWH, when did the Israelites cease to know Him by this name among others mentioned? If the Israelites never knew that God's name was YHWH, why did God think that the Israelites would listen to Moses and trust God if Moses gave them this name for God?
Given that the Genesis writer is generally accepted as being Moses (written between 1450 & 1410 BC), where he would have been given special grace to relate these events that he personally had not experienced, it could be that God was already showing him that 'special' connection to His people Israel, yet future, was already set in Adam & Eve.
Yet, would all those living pre-Moses (i.e. pre- Exodus 3:13,14), even know that 'special' Name? Exodus 6:3, says that the 'Name YHWH was not known to the patriarchs'. And yet we know that they were aware of it, like Abraham ( Genesis 15:7; Genesis 22:14), Jacob ( Genesis 27:20) & others knew that Name. But did they only know OF that Name but did not know Him fully, the full depth of understanding of the Name, YHWH? This debate probably still goes on. But when the children of Israel were in slavery in Egypt for over 400 years, that Name which should have been remembered & faithfully passed on, was forgotten, hence their need for an urgent reminder by Moses.
And "why should the Israelites listen to Moses & trust God?" There were four tokens of identification of this 'forgotten' God: the one of His Name ( Exodus 3:14, I AM: I've read that it is the inner meaning of YHWH - I Am the One Who Is); the one of the rod/serpent ( Exodus 4:1-5); the one of the leprous hand ( Exodus 4:6-8); & the one of the river of blood ( Exodus 4:9). I guess that any one or all of these signs should have confirmed Moses' call without any dispute & revealed to the Israelites unequivocally Who the One was Who had heard their cries & come to save them.
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