Everything before this verse was to the multitude 36Then Jesus sent the multitude away, and went into the house: and his disciples came unto him, saying, Declare unto us the parable of the tares of the field.
And everything after this verse was to the disciples until verse 53 then he speaks with several different peoples. are you trying to see if he is speaking to us? That's an excuse some people use to justify sin or not obeying what Jesus said which is sin. Let us be clear when Jesus speaks it's to all of us or an example to all of us and the things he says to our Commandments, God does not ask he commands Even more Paul said the things the Apostles said to are the Commandments of God. people don't want to sell all they have and give to the poor then follow Jesus they want to keep it so of course Jesus was just speaking to that one person but Jesus said: Matthew 19:29
"And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life."
The last time i checked everyone meant everyone back then and today? We see in Acts believers selling all that they had and owned and giving at the Apostles feet and to the church. Of cousrse you can say in the Greek! it means but no one NO ONE speaks the Greek that was spoken 2000 years ago that's another excuse they use God gave us his word in English the way he wanted it to be and to read and say. The 1769 KJV and there is only 1 reason why you'd change it, you disagree with God's word because you can't live up to what it says to do and be and live. Go to the top of this site hit MORE then the bible introductions 1611 and 1796 it will show you how and by who and what was use to translate it and an incite into what the times were like then
From verses 1-35 it appears he's talking to both the disciples and the multitude. verses 36-52 he's talking to the disciples. And verses 53-58 he's speaking to those in his own country. I'm not sure if his disciples was with him there.
Mrs Edwards...Jesus answed Peter as what i say to one i say to all....As God is no respector of persons....We all need to be washed in his blood...no exceptions.....When John said behold the lamb of God that taketh away the sins of the world....Thats everbody.....toda el mundo...all the world...everbody
Which versus is he talking to the multitude?
Thank you
And everything after this verse was to the disciples until verse 53 then he speaks with several different peoples. are you trying to see if he is speaking to us? That's an excuse some people use to justify sin or not obeying what Jesus said which is sin. Let us be clear when Jesus speaks it's to all of us or an example to all of us and the things he says to our Commandments, God does not ask he commands Even more Paul said the things the Apostles said to are the Commandments of God. people don't want to sell all they have and give to the poor then follow Jesus they want to keep it so of course Jesus was just speaking to that one person but Jesus said: Matthew 19:29
"And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life."
The last time i checked everyone meant everyone back then and today? We see in Acts believers selling all that they had and owned and giving at the Apostles feet and to the church. Of cousrse you can say in the Greek! it means but no one NO ONE speaks the Greek that was spoken 2000 years ago that's another excuse they use God gave us his word in English the way he wanted it to be and to read and say. The 1769 KJV and there is only 1 reason why you'd change it, you disagree with God's word because you can't live up to what it says to do and be and live. Go to the top of this site hit MORE then the bible introductions 1611 and 1796 it will show you how and by who and what was use to translate it and an incite into what the times were like then
King James Version (KJV)
From verses 1-35 it appears he's talking to both the disciples and the multitude. verses 36-52 he's talking to the disciples. And verses 53-58 he's speaking to those in his own country. I'm not sure if his disciples was with him there.
I hope this helps.
God bless.
Absolutely.
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