Bible Discussion Thread

 
  • Jackie Koger on Psalms 25 - 2 years ago
    What is meant by the fullness of the gentiles?
  • Jesse - In Reply on Psalms 25 - 2 years ago
    Jackie,

    Romans 11:25 says, "For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in."

    Frame that verse! Paul says here's the mystery that people don't understand even though it's right there in scripture that God made Israel blind in part, meaning it is temporary, not permanent until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in.

    Now there are two phrases in the New Testament. One is the "Times of the Gentiles," and the other is the "Fulness of the Gentiles."

    The definition of the fullness of the Gentiles is the completion of the body of Christ. And the time frame runs from Pentecost in Acts Chapter 2 until the rapture of the Church. That is when all the Gentiles who are going to be saved will be saved. The fullness of the Gentiles is when every Gentile that's going to be saved is going to be saved.

    So Israel has been made blind until the fullness of the Gentiles be complete.

    The "Times of the Gentiles" is given to us in Luke Chapter 21 Verse 24, and the times of the Gentiles run from the Babylonian captivity to the end of the tribulation.

    What it means is that God's judgment, the time of Nebuchadnezzar, that the Gentiles shall trample down Jerusalem and shall be in charge of the Jews as far as persecution.

    That runs all the way from Babylon, 586 B.C, until the end of the tribulation period because when Christ comes, that's when Israel will turn to the Lord.
  • Suziq - In Reply on Psalms 25 - 2 years ago
    Jesse ,what an excellent and incisive post , thankyou .



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