Does the bible say specifically that the Lord sought the life of Moses for not having his son circumcised or does it say that the Lord would seek the life of the child.
I agree with you, that this passage can appear confusing, so we need to look a little at its history.
The requirement for male circumcision was ordered by the LORD under the Abrahamic Covenant ( Genesis 17:11-12) & this was one of the signs (a token) of God's Covenant between Him & Israel. The Israelites were in bondage in Egypt, so this rite was either not performed or not done correctly there; but before reaching the Promised Land, Joshua had to re-circumcise all the males: Joshua 5:2.
With that history in mind, when we look at Exodus chapter 4, we see Moses, after disputing with the LORD about going to meet Pharaoh, finally preparing to return to Egypt to secure the release of the Israelites there. Then in verse 24, we read while Moses' family was travelling & in the Inn, "that the LORD met him (Moses), and sought to kill him (Moses)." Some interpret the "him" as Pharaoh's firstborn son, but that wouldn't make sense, as he was to be the bargaining tool to secure the Israelites' release. Nor could it apply to Moses' son, as at that age (?), the parents were still responsible for having the circumcision performed. It's doubtful that the LORD would have followed through with killing Moses, rather that GOD showed His extreme displeasure in no uncertain terms.
What we don't read in verse 24, is how the LORD was dealing with Moses about his failure to circumcise his son. Because of Moses' failure to do this prior to returning to Egypt, God's Anger was kindled & He had showed them both that Moses' life was at stake. Zipporah, his wife, immediately took the initiative & circumcised their son, & in anger called Moses, 'a bridegroom of blood' (her husband's failure to have their son properly circumcised forcing her to do the job). Moses may have had his reasons for not circumcising (it's suggested that he didn't want it done in the Egyptian manner which was different to what God prescribed), but his failure to do so, brought on God's displeasure & anger against him.
The requirement for male circumcision was ordered by the LORD under the Abrahamic Covenant ( Genesis 17:11-12) & this was one of the signs (a token) of God's Covenant between Him & Israel. The Israelites were in bondage in Egypt, so this rite was either not performed or not done correctly there; but before reaching the Promised Land, Joshua had to re-circumcise all the males: Joshua 5:2.
With that history in mind, when we look at Exodus chapter 4, we see Moses, after disputing with the LORD about going to meet Pharaoh, finally preparing to return to Egypt to secure the release of the Israelites there. Then in verse 24, we read while Moses' family was travelling & in the Inn, "that the LORD met him (Moses), and sought to kill him (Moses)." Some interpret the "him" as Pharaoh's firstborn son, but that wouldn't make sense, as he was to be the bargaining tool to secure the Israelites' release. Nor could it apply to Moses' son, as at that age (?), the parents were still responsible for having the circumcision performed. It's doubtful that the LORD would have followed through with killing Moses, rather that GOD showed His extreme displeasure in no uncertain terms.
What we don't read in verse 24, is how the LORD was dealing with Moses about his failure to circumcise his son. Because of Moses' failure to do this prior to returning to Egypt, God's Anger was kindled & He had showed them both that Moses' life was at stake. Zipporah, his wife, immediately took the initiative & circumcised their son, & in anger called Moses, 'a bridegroom of blood' (her husband's failure to have their son properly circumcised forcing her to do the job). Moses may have had his reasons for not circumcising (it's suggested that he didn't want it done in the Egyptian manner which was different to what God prescribed), but his failure to do so, brought on God's displeasure & anger against him.
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