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  • T
    Terry Houle on 1 John 1 - 3 years ago
    How did almighty god refer to homosexuality?
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  • B
    Bendito Palavra - In Reply on 1 John 1 - 3 years ago
    Homosexuality is one result of the darkness that comes on people that reject God and follow their own imaginations (See Romans chapter 1).

    Repentance and faith in Jesus Christ is the remedy :

    Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God. ( 1 Corinthians 6:9-11)

    The LORD calls such practices abomination, which means disgusting. ( Leviticus 18:22)

    In Genesis 18 and 19, the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah were judged to be so wicked that the LORD rained brimstone and fire upon them, utterly destroying them. The name sodomite comes from their example. Their destruction is an example to any that would consider living ungodly ( 2 Peter 2:6).
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  • G
    Greg - In Reply on 1 John 1 - 3 years ago
    What does it mean by, "...abusers of themselves with mankind?"
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  • C
    Chris - In Reply on 1 John 1 - 3 years ago
    Greg, that expression essentially refers to the Sodomites, or as we would say, homosexuals.
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