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  • Brad Holland on Luke 2:14 - 11 years ago
    The difference in the King James Version of Luke 2:14 to the Vulgate is worth studying. Wikipedia says it is based on inclusion or omission of a "genitive" vowel at the end of Greek versions of the verse. I have not yet found decisively strong evidence supporting one translation over the other or (alternatively) allowing for both interpretations as would be possible if the original text was not explicit in it's use of language. I would be happy for information explaining the King James interpretation or translation of this verse.



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