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  • Bennymkje - 1 month ago
    Mark 1 :1-11 The word of God-sound and sign (2 of 2)

    v.5 " And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins"

    The great revival 'in all the land of Judaea and they of Jerusalem' was not because of John's austerity or of his person but the voice of the Lord worked with men as he 'shaketh the wilderness; the Lord shaketh the wilderness of Kadesh.". Hinds calve as surely men see a great light dawning on them.(Ps.29:8-9). Here also Isaiah saw ahead ,"The people which sat in darkness saw great light; and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death light is sprung up."(Matt.4:14-16). The same voice that inspired Isaiah did enthuse John's Father. The Angel of the Lord is how the sound becomes a sign. St Luke report of it, "And many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God./And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias, to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord."( Luke 1:16-17) At first Zecharias would not believe and his temporary dumbness was a sign. As surely as calves of a hind.

    v.11 "And there came a voice from heaven, saying, Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." Here we have both word as a sound as a sign.

    Compared to other gospels Mark tells us salient features of the Advent of the Son with great economy of words. "And immediately the spirit driveth him into the wilderness."(v.12)
  • Jayh1979 - In Reply - 1 month ago
    My faith is in God and God only hallelujah he coming I can not wait
  • Chrisdube - 1 month ago
    The Apocrypha wad translated by the Commission that translated the Textus Receptus (of which virtually all is the KJV).

    The Apocrypha did not get removed until the KJV was updated -- in 1882. So if it wasn't "God inspired," how did it manage to remain between the Testaments for 270+ years?

    Before you try to answer that, bear in mind thise who put it there also translated the Testaments, as well. So clearly they knew about it.
  • Momsage - In Reply - 4 weeks ago
    Hello Chrisdube:

    You asked this about the Apocrypha: "So if it wasn't "God inspired," how did it manage to remain between the Testaments for 270+ years?" Why the Apocrypha was included in the KJV until 1885 is a kind of mystery but it shouldn't be a cause to believe in this book as Holy Ghost inspired. What matters is this book contains some very serious false doctrines which proves it is not Holy Ghost inspired.

    In 2nd Maccabees 12: 40-43 it gives credence in giving prayers and alms so that the dead can be forgiven and eventually go to heaven. After a major battle during the preparation for burial of soldiers who had died, it was discovered that each of them was wearing amulets of devotion to pagan gods under their clothes which was sin: "Then under the tunic of each one of the dead, they found sacred tokens of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbids the Jews to wear. And it became clear to all that this was the reason these men had fallen. So they all blessed the ways of the Lord, the righteous Judge, who reveals the things that are hidden; and they turned to supplication, praying that the sin that had been committed might be wholly blotted out,"

    In Baruch 3:4 it teaches that the dead can pray for themselves to eventually go to heaven. "O Lord Almighty, thou God of Israel, hear now the prayers of the dead Israelites, and of their children, which have sinned before thee, and not hearkened unto the voice of thee their God: for the which cause these plagues cleave unto us.

    In Tobit 9:12 it claims that alms can purge away sin. "For alms doth deliver from death, and shall purge away all sin. Those that exercise alms and righteousness shall be filled with life:"

    So whether we can give a precise reason why God allowed the Apocrypha to be included in the KJB for a time or not, it is a book to be avoided by true believers. God Bless :)
  • BJGibson on 1 Timothy 3:2 - 1 month ago
    being Sober

    "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;" 1 Timothy 3:2 KJV

    A sober person is serious person (making and doing what is important, taking the gospel of Jesus Christ seriously. Since as in the office of a Bishop, God is the supervisor of this office, if you will, and God is a spirit. Being able to have a knowing of the unseen presence of God at all times. (all believers should have a God consciousness)

    A sober person is a solemn person (being able to perform sacred ceremonies or worship rituals with great importance and in a highly serious manner.

    In order for a Bishop to perform this their thinking has to be sober, and not experiencing uncontrolled thoughts, having complete focus and be in charge of his thoughts and thinking on purpose. During times of holy ceremonies a Bishop needs to be fully reverencing God and the things of God, with his heart and mind open to God and not things of the flesh during sacred times and events.

    Because all believers need to be serious also and participate in solemn ceremonies a Bishop is needed to be an example of a sober minded person. A Bishop is needed to teach about such things as well.

    Respectfully submitted in the name of our precious Lord and Saviour Jesus, the Christ.
  • Chrisdube - 1 month ago
    I have a replica of the 1611 KJV. The Apocrypha is in there. It is tucked in between the Old and New Testaments -- as it should be.

    From what I understand, the Apocrypha covers the time between Malachi and the New Testament.

    Interestingly enough, the commission that translated the Textus Receptus (where the KJV almost exclusively entails), they did NOT remove the Apocrypha. It stayed in the KJV until the late 1800 (around 1880). So, if it were truly "unGodly," they would have NEVER left it in.
  • Chrisdube - In Reply - 1 month ago
    I wish I had a more direct answer, but I am not a Pastor. I read a book supporting the King James ONLY as God's true bible. (As opposed to the "modern translations.")

    In the book, "The Preeminence of Christ," the Authors, John A. Ricci and Louis E. DeBoer point out that most of the early "translations" were done by Gnostics, who carried (what we would call today) significant baggage. For instance, they did NOT believe in the Resurrection of Christ.

    They also frequently changed parts of the New Testament that they personally did not agree with.

    Most of the "modern translations," are translations of Gnostic translations (unlike the King James which principally comes from the Textus Receptus).

    The "modern translations" started around the time the Apocrypha was removed from the KJV. While I have no way of knowing, and I will not be dogmatic about it, I think a bunch of "modern translators" formed a group of "Bible scholars" and had it removed.
  • Momsage - In Reply - 1 month ago
    But if it was Godly, why did they take it out?
  • Bennymkje - 1 month ago
    Mark 1:1-11 (1of 2)

    "The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;/As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee."(vv.1-2)

    Mark presents Jesus as the Son of God. He does not say he was the Word become flesh but in his obedience to the Word, he is shown as born of God. His faith makes him human as John or anyone of us. "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."( John 1:12-13) Above the quote is from Malachi (3:1) which has not become entangled with that of the quote from next verse. About this we shall take up at the end of the note on v.3

    "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight." (v.3)

    This cites Prophet Isaiah who did not say it in a vacuum but inspired of God who commanded so the knowledge of his glory in terms of man gave expression to the word of God which itself manifests the other worldly quality of faith."The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make straight in the desert a highway for our God."(2 Co.4:6;Is.40:3) St Paul asks, "But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world." It is thus truth written in our inward parts make sense of it.(Ro.10:18)

    quote from Isaiah is set in place by the preceding verse. "Speak ye comfortably to Jerusalem, and cry unto her, that her warfare is accomplished, that her iniquity is pardoned: for she hath received of the Lord's hand double for all her sins." This refers to the remnant of Israel at the eleventh hour as it were, delivered from fire. Compare the quote from Malachi. "behold, he shall come, saith the Lord of hosts."(Mal.3:1) Mark's quote therefore fits with the Advent of Jesus Christ as more closer in time. The voice of the Lord reaches the ends of the world as risen Christ promises. (Matt.28:20) '
  • MotherMac - 1 month ago
    Reply to KJV on Isaiah 53:5

    Thank you for taking time to help me understand Isaiah 53:5.

    Healing puts back in place something that is out of order. Healing fixes things. Jesus' purpose in the land of the living was to make us whole.

    It seems that Jesus reassured people that came to him for healing that their sins would not hinder their healing if they believed. Isaiah 53:5 is referring to both body and soul. In one scripture , the devils knew the prophesy of Isaiah concerning him. Jesus not only heals the "sin-sick soul, (transgression, iniquities) but the mind, BODY and soul. (COVID, Cancer, AIDS, Heart

    Trouble, High blood pressure, diabetes) I noticed that in many conversation with the sick, Jesus mentions "sin." He was connecting sickness and sin.

    St. James also mentioned Elders of the Church in relations to prayers for healing "sickness. and "sin."

    The words " the chastisement of our peace, (our anxieties)

    was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed." "Jesus stripes" are talking about healing every part of us that need fixing.
  • Bennymkje - 1 month ago
    Gospel of St Mark-overview

    Prima facie one is likely to assume that Evangelist Matthew as one of the twelve is more likely to be advantaged over Mark as one given a ringside view of Jesus, his life, passion death and resurrection. The generation of Mark was farther from controversies whipped up for and against the man but what he had set off, the visible form of worship and attitudes unusual in the prevailing moral laxity the nascent church was gaining strength despite all odds. Mark however was among the stalwarts like Simon Peter and Paul and also early convert.

    The Spirit having taken a hand over both Matthew and Mark has set down the truth regardless of the time lapse. How can he not present the Word become flesh but with authority so his truth sanctifies to which no scholarship of man is equal. Without any hesitation we can say that Mark as a faithful believer benefits from the Holy Ghost as other canonical gospel writers to set what is true. The risen Christ said, "And, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world." Given the truth set in inward parts whosoever thus equipped it is fit to the job.

    As a disciple the Spirit entrusted St Matthew to delineate the preeminence of Jesus Christ; so with a large canvass at his disposal the risen Christ caps his Gospel with these stirring words of comfort, "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth." As having overcome death for believers both heaven and earth are reconciled in a believer by his assurance: St Mark is as inspired as he but his is like lapidary work, focusing more on his inner life, prayer life for instance

    After mentioning his temptation in the wilderness we have this verse: 'And in the morning, rising up a great while before day, he went out, and departed into a solitary place, and there prayed(1:35)'. (6:31-32)(6:34)
  • Momsage - 1 month ago
    Isn't believing in the Trinity just simply believing in God? The Trinity is God so how can you be saved and not believe in the Trinity. You can't separate the Trinity and God, they are one and the same thing. Which part of the Trinity do you not believe in and can still be saved? The Father, the Son or the Holy Ghost? It's amazing to me that the idea that you can be saved and not believe that the Trinity/God are the same thing. ????
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hey Giannis,

    Thanks, I understand this is a hard subject that goes deep. I understand what you are saying. I hope all is well with you.

    God bless,

    RLW
  • Momsage - In Reply - 1 month ago
    To believe in the Trinity is to believe in God. There is no salvation if you don't believe in God. Why you don't want to believe in the Godhead of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost is beyond me. But I know you have done a lot of discussions on this. I haven't seen any of it but I don't particularly want to discuss it. I doubt I will have anything to say you that you haven't already heard.
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Momsage,

    Many believe as you do in the Trinity, as you say, "The Trinity is God so how can you be saved and not believe in the Trinity". The Trinity was developed almost 400 years after Jesus ascended to heaven. This is not to debate. I think most on this site know my understanding of this.

    Just a thought, to eliminate any doubt, if we must believe God is a Triune God to receive salvation shouldn't there be Scripture telling us this? You may have found where John, Peter, Paul, or any other apostles have written and told us we must believe in the Trinity for salvation, but I have not found it.

    God bless.

    RLW
  • Momsage - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hello Ronald: I want to apologize for the way I replied to your post about the Trinity. It was a little to straightforward. I know I implied you weren't saved and I am truly sorry about that. I have read some more of your postings now and understand a little better what you believe and I can see you love The Lord and are a brother.

    I believe the word "Trinity" to describe the teaching of God the Father, Jesus the Son and the Holy Ghost as God three in one wasn't used until about 400AD but the teaching is bibical. Honest question, and you may have been asked this already, but it seems a big part of your belief is because the word Trinity isn't specifically spoken in the scriptures that you believe it isn't true but what about the word "rapture"? Do you believe in it? I'm not trying to deviate from this discussion. I'm just comparing what I believe in that the word Trinity may not be in the bible but, I believe, the teaching truly is. God Bless :)
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Momsage,

    You did not offend me at all, this subject is hard, and feelings go deep, and many will not even discuss it because it has been a foundation of belief for so many years, and as Giannis said there are verses in the bible that can support different understandings. I am not one to say it is because the word Trinity is not in the Bible. I feel if someone says it is not true because the word Trinity is not in the Bible falls short and does not support why they do not believe in the Trinity.

    Same as the rapture, another subject that has been discussed here before. I also do not believe in how it is taught but it is not because the word rapture is not in the Bible. In 1 Thessalonians 4:17, it is caught up from the Greek word harpazo meaning to seize, catch up, snatch away. This can be translated into English as rapture which has the same meaning as harpazo. It is not the word it is what is taught that will happen.

    Thank you and God bless,

    RLW
  • Momsage - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Ronald: oops, misunderstood you again. What I meant was that the word for "God three in one" didn't appear in Christian dialog until about 400AD but the teaching has always been biblical but what you meant is that the teaching isn't biblical at all. Is that right?

    Since I am new to this discussion would you be willing to explain what your belief is? I hesitate to ask because I know this is a repeat for you but I'd really like to know. If you'd rather not, I understand. Maybe we can go on to another discussion. I enjoy reading your comments and would like to continue in discussions with you.

    God Bless :)
  • Bennymkje - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Ronald

    Neither the Spirit has told us how to breathe but we do it naturally through our nostrils. When God breathed through the nostrils of man we understand God a Spirit made us a living soul. The soul establishes His authority.There is more to life than existing.

    We have body spirit and soul which corresponds with the 'us' in God's commandment "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness."(Ge.1:26) Likeness gives a body, spirit and soul which is after the similitude existing in heaven.

    "A body hast thou prepared me"(He.10:5) a glorious body for the Son consequently must hold true for us, is it not? It is to this spiritual body St Paul refers,"For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens."(2 Co.5:1) Glory of body is as what God gives. Adam was earthy, since from the ground he was formed. For those have born again as a new creation, the body is glorious as that of Christ who is the Lord of heaven. Thus glory of body differs as those of earth and of heaven differs.

    We breathe merely as natural man. Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of heaven. So as new creation we breathe as indwelling Spirit equipped us, seeking the perfect will of God. It is a matter of faith. Either you breathe so your soul shall escape condemnation when called to account Or you breathe till you body hit the dust, awaiting judgment.
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Bennymkje,

    Just me, seems there are fewer discussions lately on this site and Momsage's post suggested discussion. My understanding of discussions is brothers and sisters sharing their understanding of a subject not to belittle or to prove one as being wrong, but by sharing our understanding of a subject that will encourage each other to study in prayer for the truth.

    What is faith? We see in Hebrews 11:1,6 We also have Romans 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

    We are to have faith but our faith cannot be based on the word of man where we can be deceived and taken out of the way. Our faith must come from the word of God guided by His Spirit and His word is the Holy Scripture, He has given us.

    This one subject is based on the word of man, nowhere in Scripture does it tell us we must believe or have faith in a triune God, but the opposite, Deuteronomy 6:4 Mark 12:29 1 Timothy 2:5, and many more. "God made us a living soul" Soul is the Hebrew word nephesh, a living being, any living being, every air-breathing creature is a nephesh, a living being/soul.

    Genesis 1:26 many apply the Trinity to this verse but then we must ignore verse 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. This could also easily be first-person plural, like mom says, let us make tacos and then she is the one who makes the tacos. If we lived before 489 AD, before the Trinity doctrine was made the foundational belief of Christianity, and the punishment of heresy, how would we take this verse?

    If we walk in the world we will perish, if we walk in the Spirit our faith is in Jesus and our hope is as Jesus was resurrected in His glorified body so we shall also be resurrected in our glorified body into eternal life with Him.

    God bless,

    RLW
  • Bennymkje - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Ronald

    " Genesis 1:26 many apply the Trinity to this verse but then we must ignore verse 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. This could also easily be first-person plural." No it is not. "

    I, God changeth not"(Mal.3:6) Neither does He give his glory to another. Ge.1: 27 says " So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." Ge. 1 refers to the MOU or the everlasting covenant between God the Father and God the Son. Thus the Will of God in v.26 and the Son completes it. "It was so" at the end of each day is as though the Son in agreement.(v.7)

    The v.28 God blesses them (man). The covenant is between God and Man. In primary sense it is man say Adam. In secondary sense it is set down by the Holy Ghost in terms of God as Being as well as in terms Christ and the Church.

    As Being what is God? He is one. ("Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord"-De.6:4) Jesus Christ as the visible image of the invisible God is both glory as well as body in Trinity. The Father Son and Holy Spirit are not considered separate entities but manifestations of the same Being. The Son of man expresses the Word become flesh. Similarly the Word was God. The same Spirit but expressed as separate. Jesus did not require baptism by water but in obedience to the Word and in human likeness he undertook so in all things he was as human as you and me.

    When we say that the scriptures must be fulfilled Jesus in his humanity met the criteria. The third office in Trinity serves by bringing events, persons connect according to the divine Will. He therefore brought Evangelist Philip to meet the Ethiopian. The entire scripture is organized on a reconstituted time.
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Bennymkje,

    I know you are an author and your vocabulary is greater than mine I will try to respond but to be truthful you are hard to follow. First MOU my understanding is a nonbinding agreement between parties stating their intentions. How can that be a covenant a covenant is a relationship between partners either conditional or unconditional and this covenant is between God the Father and God the Son. Would not the Holy Spirit be a part of this covenant and the will of God that the Son completes? John 6:38 It is God's will not Jesus's like He said in Luke 22:42.

    If God is a triune God, would it not be the will of all three with no difference in authority or knowledge? Why the need for a covenant between them since all three are God and all three are equal?

    At the beginning of each day, God said what was to be, the spoken word of God, and it was so. Other than speculation how can we say the Son was in agreement? Isaiah 45:18 In Genesis 1:28 would be an unconditional covenant, more of a blessing, God placed man above all that was created on earth and man was given dominion over it. God delegated the rule of man over His creation and no consequences were stated, we see how that turned out.

    I agree Jesus did not need to be water baptized for remittance of sin, but He did need the anointing of the Holy Ghost/Spirit to become the Messiah/Christ. The word of God was in Jesus and by the Holy Ghost/Spirit Jesus did the works of His Father therefore Jesus was the tabernacle of God, the image of God for every word Jesus said was not His but the word of God the Father. John 4:34 John 5:30 John 12:44-45

    Philip was the first to bring the gospel to the Samaritans.

    I hope you can make sense of this.

    God bless,

    RLW
  • Bennymkje - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Ronald,

    In addition to my reply you may check out my post from the gospel of St Mark, under the title 'Authority'. You see Trinity in action whether it is in heaven or on earth.
  • Bennymkje - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Ronald

    The everlasting covenant is between God and Man. The Man here is the Son, to whom God by a decree gives the day..Ps.2:7 How long the day is, it is set by eternal God. The seven days in the first chapter relate to what God willed. His will is perfect and absolute, requiring no correction.

    "And God said, Let there be light: and there was light." God's will expressed and it is fulfilled by the Son. This is not with regards to the natural light from celestial objects but about inheritance of saints in light. This covenant is agreed upon light and darkness. In God's eyes light of the day or of night, "Yea, the darkness hideth not from thee; but the night shineth as the day: the darkness and the light are both alike to thee."(Ps.139:12). Who shall question God why day and not night? It is a matter of faith and obedience. This is what the Son has shown as the Word become flesh.

    "And the evening and the morning were the first day." The Spirit in recording this covenant gives us a phrase to indicate it is a continuous processs and at the end of each day it is recorded. In Re.21 we read that there was no more night in the holy city. Thus from day one in Ge.1:5 till the last book this shall be a continual process. God's covenant is everlasting while all other covenants are between men and allowed because of what is determined in heaven. Trinity gives God the Father, the Son and the third office in Trinity as the Witness.

    Blessings come down from the greater to the lesser. Faith is one.

    The two worlds framed by the word of God, unseen part is heaven (will of the Father) and world made to appear (earth) refers to the Son. So the earth abides forever.(Ec.1:4) He.11:3

    The Spirit set creation, "In the beginning" (Ge.1:1) in "the fulness of time" referring the Advent of the Son/ " But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,"(Gal.4:4-6). Time is according to God and not earth time.
  • Giannis - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hi Ronald

    I don't wish to take part in this conversation, but one thing comes into my mind.

    There are scriptures in the Bible that show Jesus as a human being. We all know those scriptures and you have mentioned many so far. But on the other hand there are scriptures that show Jesus as a God. Some brothers and sisters have pointed them out to you. If one deletes either side gets into wrong conclusions. If one considers only those who show Him as a man then they will conclude that Jesus is only a man. If one selects only those who show Him as a God, then they will wrongly conclude that He is only God. You have to take both into account to get the right picture of Jesus. GBU
  • GiGi - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Hello Ronald,

    I wish to enter this conversation with you even though we have discussed together this topic in other past converstations. I hope you do not mind.

    In regards to the doctrine of the triune nature of God, several questions come to my mind.

    Is God and has He always been one solitary person?

    Before creation was He always and only alone, without anyone to love?

    Did Jesus exist before creation? Did the Holy Spirit exist before creation?

    If so, who were they in relation to the Father?

    How did the Father, the Son, and the Spirit all create all that is, seen or unseen?

    What does Scripture say about these questions?

    Does Scripture teach that God is only one person who manifest in three forms, but all these manifestations are only one person?

    (Modalism)

    For those who do not believe in the triune nature of God (three persons that share equally one divine nature) I would like answers to these questions. Since you have declared you to be non-trinitarian maybe you can give me your views in answer to these questions in this post.

    Do you believe the Son is a created being?

    I so, when did He come into existence?

    Do you believe that the Son is only human in nature?

    Do you believe that Jesus became "the Christ" during His lifetime (Adptionism)?

    Do you believe Jesus ever aquired a divine nature in His earthly life?

    Do you believe that the will of the Father and the will of the Son are always the same or different?

    Do you believe at a human being can truly save all men from sin and death by a perfect life in their own will?

    How would a human being know that they are the Messiah from birth and thus know not to ever sin?

    Do you believe that Jesus lived a sinless life?

    Do you believe that the Father and the Son are one as Jesus said in Jn. 17 or that He and the Father are "in" one another and if they see Jesus, they see the Father?

    How is it that Jesus AND the Father send the Holy Spirit if there is only one person as God?

    I appreciate your answers
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    GiGi,

    Part 5 and last Trinity discussion,

    Do you believe that Jesus lived a sinless life?

    Scripture is clear Jesus had no sin, Hebrews 4:15 1 Peter 2:22 1 John 3:5 Romans 5:12-15.

    Do you believe that the Father and the Son are one as Jesus said in Jn. 17 or that He and the Father are "in" one another and if they see Jesus, they see the Father?

    Both, Jesus said I and my Father are one John 10:30 and in other places, one means unity. Jesus was one with the Father not because Jesus was God but because He was filled with the Spirit and God dwelt in him, John 14:10, as we see God was in Christ 2 Corinthians 5:19

    God dwelt in Jesus and empowered Him by His Spirit that gave Jesus the power and authority like Matthew 11:27 All things are delivered to Jesus of His Father, Jesus did not have it, all was given to Him. God was manifest in Jesus, John 12:49 John 14:10. This is why Jesus said if you have seen me, you have seen the Father, John 14:9.

    Jesus in His prayer asked the Father that we may be one, as He and His Father are one through the words of the disciples, John 17:20-23. God and Jesus will dwell in us and we in them, 1 John 4:13-16 1 John 3:23-24.

    How is it that Jesus AND the Father send the Holy Spirit if there is only one person as God?

    Jesus said He would pray to the Father to give another comforter, John 14:16, we see in John 14:26 the Father will send in Jesus's name. In John 15:26 Jesus said I will send but this is from the Father and the Spirit of truth that proceedeth from the Father. This is not a person it is the Spirit of God.

    Please don't take this wrong, in the Trinity there is one God who eternally exists as three distinct Persons: The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, each Person is fully God, coequal, coeternal, and consubstantial. I'm sorry my understanding, is Scripture does not support that, Scripture is clear the Father is above all.

    Thank you, GiGi, I hope this is what you wanted I am not the best at this.

    God bless,

    RLW
  • GiGi - In Reply - 1 month ago
    Yes, Ronald, your explanations to my questions have helped me understand your viewpoint very well. Thank you for taking the time to answer my questions seriously and respectfully. Be blessed today.
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    GiGi,

    Part 4 Trinity discussion.

    Do you believe that the will of the Father and the will of the Son are always the same or different?

    Jesus was obedient to the Father, Jesus said many times it is not His will but the will of the Father who sent Him, the same as we are to do, John 4:34 John 5:30 Mark 3:35.

    Do you believe that a human being can truly save all men from sin and death by a perfect life in their own will?

    First, I will have to say it was the will of the Father, Jesus at the end even asked His father if there was another way but not Jesus's will but the will of His Father, Matthew 26:39 Luke 22:42. We are told this is the foundation of our faith, Jesus' sacrificial death. God cannot die God is Spirit He has no blood to shed for sin it had to be a man, His Son, born of a woman.

    John 3:16 God gave His Son not Himself 1 John 2:22 1 John 4:3 2 John 1:7 Romans 5:8 2 Corinthians 5:21, God cannot be made sin, 1 Corinthians 15:17 Jesus died, and God raised Him from the dead, the first man to live a perfect life, the first fruits of those who sleep in death. 1 Corinthians 15:14 as said if Jesus was not a man who lived a perfect life and died and was raised from the dead all is vain.

    The first Adam was the first man Jesus was the last Adam and the second man, 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. 1 Corinthians 15:21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. The law had to be fulfilled by a man.

    How would a human being know that they are the Messiah from birth and thus know not to ever sin?

    As we see Luke 2:51-52 Jesus grew up increasing in wisdom and stature in favor with God and man. Jesus was twelve years old and He knew His father was God, but it doesn't say Jesus knew then He was to be the Messiah. God also said He would raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, Deuteronomy 18:15, Isaiah 11:1-5 Isaiah 61:1-2 confirmed in Luke 4:18-21. Romans 1:1-4 2 Timothy 2:8.

    See part 5
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 1 month ago
    GiGi,

    Part 3 Trinity discussion,

    Do you believe the Son is a created being?

    What is the meaning of created? Does it mean something that is made out of nothing? I would have to say no, Jesus is the Son of God who was conceived in the womb of Mary, Matthew 1:20 Luke 1:35, I do not think I would say He was created.

    If so, when did He come into existence?

    In God's plan before anything and physically when He was conceived in Mary's womb.

    Do you believe that the Son is only human in nature?

    Jesus is the Son of God fully human but without sin same as the first Adam, Scripture is clear when Jesus was baptized, He was anointed with the Holy Ghost/Spirit without measure, John 3:34. All the works of Jesus were done by the Spirit of God, Matthew 4:16 Matthew 12:28 Acts 10:38.

    Do you believe that Jesus became "the Christ" during His lifetime (Adoptionism)?

    I had never heard of Adoptionism until now, I had to look it up, it's false. Christ and Messiah are the same; Jesus was anointed by the Spirit of God after He was baptized by John, He then was made the Messiah/Christ fulfilling the prophecy in Daniel 9:25. Jesus is the Son of God conceived in the womb of Mary by the Holy Ghost/Spirit.

    Do you believe Jesus ever aquired a divine nature in His earthly life?

    If you mean a divine nature is to have all the attributes that make God who He is I would have to say no. If so, Jesus could not sin or be tempted, Matthew 4:1 Hebrews 4:15. If so, Jesus living a perfect life without sin is meaningless. Jesus could not have died; Jesus was given the power of the Holy Spirit when He was anointed the Messiah. After He rose from the dead God gave Jesus all power in heaven and on earth, Matthew 28:18. God raised and placed Jesus on His right side, Ephesians 1:21-23. Jesus did not return to where He was before, God the Father placed everything under Jesus God's only begotten Son's feet and Jesus will reign until the last enemy is destroyed, 1 Corinthians 15:24-28.

    See part 4.


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