I'm not sure if David knew Joab killed him. I don't think so for he said God will bring justice to Abner's death. It was wrong for Joab to kill him when there was truce between David and Abner. That's why I think David mourned him that he was killed foolishly and not by honor.
No. He wasn't. In fact, he said in 2 Samuel 11:8, "and I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given thee such and such things."
In the very next verse, he makes it very clear that he was angry because David had "despised the commandment of the LORD, to do evil in his sight" by having Uriah killed and taking his wife. This was the word of the LORD spoken by Nathan the prophet. But he probably wasn't too happy about David's committing adultery with her before that, either.
Neither the LORD (God, the Father) nor Jesus EVER condemned any man at any time for having more than one wife, although I'm sure there were plenty around that did, even in the time of Jesus. There are still polygamous marriages in some countries even today.
What Jesus said was that if a man put one wife away (divorced her) to marry another, except if she had committed fornication, he was guilty of adultery and causing her and any future husband she might have to commit adultery. You have to read all accounts of his discourse on divorce to see that he's talking about putting her away in order to marry another. These are found in Matthew 5:31&32, Matthew 19:9, Mark 10:11&12, and Luke 16:18. So we see that, if a man had five wives, he was okay, but he could not put one away so that he could marry another. Perhaps this meant so he could afford to marry another. I don't know. But he could put her away for fornication. Why didn't he say adultery? Because adultery carried an automatic death sentence in those days. No divorce was necessary.
Too, Mark 10:12 shows that a woman could also put away her husband, but was under the same rules as the man pertaining to divorce.
The will of god had to be fulfilled on David and whatever Abner did to David was to serve David. Joab acted like a faithful servant of David but he was not. He actually became jealous of Abner because David was becoming more fond of Abner and decided to kill him in cold blood. That's why David warned his heir not to allow Joab die honorably as he was a threat to the throne, all to the will of god.
I do think that David was upset bc it wasn't something he was going to do nor wanted this ch,vs28-29,Abner although arrogant,He is a person devious or not,it wasn't really the way to deal with the situation,just bc Abner has a nasty attitude,doesn't mean its now"ok"for others to be the same way,if it was wrong of Abner then it would have been wrong 4others,its not really honorable its revenge,opin
God was working behind the scene. Did David allow Joab and his servants to play / fight with the Ishbosheth servants? certainly not. And the impenitent Aber came to David, presented to have a league with the People of Israel and David promptly adhere his request and knowing this will be the God's will, sent Abner with the word of Peace. But Joab destroyed it, so he be angry with him and cursed.
David would mourn for any of his children being a man after GODs own heart.. ! He mourned for Saul whom tried to slay David many times! Remember we are GODs chosen as they were!
Vernita, David 's first son 's name was Amnon. The child he hath with Bathsheba is the one who died. What I don 't understand is why David was upset with Joab because he killed Abner. Abner made Saul 's son king even though David was king. He killed Joab 's brother so I feel like Joab was well within his right to kill Abner. That 's just me feeling.
In the very next verse, he makes it very clear that he was angry because David had "despised the commandment of the LORD, to do evil in his sight" by having Uriah killed and taking his wife. This was the word of the LORD spoken by Nathan the prophet. But he probably wasn't too happy about David's committing adultery with her before that, either.
Neither the LORD (God, the Father) nor Jesus EVER condemned any man at any time for having more than one wife, although I'm sure there were plenty around that did, even in the time of Jesus. There are still polygamous marriages in some countries even today.
What Jesus said was that if a man put one wife away (divorced her) to marry another, except if she had committed fornication, he was guilty of adultery and causing her and any future husband she might have to commit adultery. You have to read all accounts of his discourse on divorce to see that he's talking about putting her away in order to marry another. These are found in Matthew 5:31&32, Matthew 19:9, Mark 10:11&12, and Luke 16:18. So we see that, if a man had five wives, he was okay, but he could not put one away so that he could marry another. Perhaps this meant so he could afford to marry another. I don't know. But he could put her away for fornication. Why didn't he say adultery? Because adultery carried an automatic death sentence in those days. No divorce was necessary.
Too, Mark 10:12 shows that a woman could also put away her husband, but was under the same rules as the man pertaining to divorce.
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